**Placement Criteria :**

**Qualification :**B.E./B.TECH

**Salary :**2.5 – 3 lacs per annum

**What to study :**web development languages like php, jsp, html

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# Month: March 2012

## AGS Technology Placement Papers

**Placement Criteria : **

**Qualification : **B.E./B.TECH
**Salary : **2.5 – 3 lacs per annum
**What to study : **web development languages like php, jsp, html

## Syntel Placement Papers – Sample Logical Questions

## Auidence Science Placement Papers

AudienceScience is a digital marketing technology company enabling universal access to audiences through the AudienceScience Gateway. The AudienceScience Gateway is a proprietary audience delivery solution that unleashes the power of data making it simple to create, understand, and engage relevant audiences. By leveraging industry leading technology, superior service, and unique data assets AudienceScience drives digital marketing success for advertisers, agencies, publishers and technology partners. Since 2003, AudienceScience has powered over 300,000 successfully targeted campaigns worldwide.
## Top 5 Common HR Interview Questions

## Opportunities for Freshers in Bangalore

## Software Engineer Freshers Openings

**Location :** Pune, Mumbai

**Category :** IT

**Qualification in Brief : **Any Graduate

**Description In Brief :** Freshers can apply for Software Engineer Openings at Treesha Desire. Requirements include excellent communication skills , problem solving skills and having interest to learn new things…

**To Apply To This Job Posted On TimesJobs : **Click this link

## Infosys Relative Speed Problems for Practice

## Wipro Placement Paper – Technical Analytic 2012 Questions

## Birla Soft Placement Papers

## MU Sigma Placement Paper 2011

World of placement papers

Serving a wide range of customers worldwide, AGS Technologies is one of the fastest growing Software Development and IT Company based in Pune. We provide a full range of high quality, cost-effective Software Development and IT solutions to businesses worldwide and deliver unmatched business value to customers through a combination of process excellence, quality framework and service delivery innovation. We are dedicated to providing our clients with the highest level of customer service and support. AGS Technologies is fast becoming the industry leader in providing collaborative business solutions for all types of business houses and for every major market.

Open Source E-commerce like Drupal, Joomla, Magento.

Question 1

Government of Tamil Nadu conducted a Trade Fair in Island grounds, Chennai from 3rd January to 31st January 2012. The Fair attracted stalls from different business activities such as banking, BPO, software companies, educational institutions, furniture makers, luxury goods dealers etc. The fair also had a drama festival conducted every day. Surprisingly the trend observed in the number of spectators for the drama was following a trend. On the first day 120 people attended. On the second day it had only 80 people i.e. number was less by 40. On the third day again the number increased by 120 from the previous day and on the fourth day the number came down by 40 from the third day figure. Assuming this trend continued on which day the drama would have had full capacity of auditorium -1080 seats?

a) 25th January b) 23rd January c) 27th January d) none of these.

Answer : c) 27th January.

Solution :

Total capacity of the drama auditorium –1080

As per statements in question the number of people on first few days are as follows :

First day : 120.

Second day : 80.

Third day : previous day’s strength + 120 = 80 + 120 = 200.

Fourth day : previous day’s strength – 40 = 200 – 40 =160.

Fifth day : previous day’s strength + 120 = 160 + 120 = 280

Sixth day : previous day’s strength – 40 = 240 – 40 = 240.

You can now note a trend that for every two days the strength effectively increases by 80.

So in 24 days the number of spectators will be 80 x 12 = 960.

On the 25th day 960 + 120 = 1080.

The full capacity will be reached on 25th day from start of fair. Since the start date is 3rd January, the capacity will be reached on 27th January.

Question 2

Marco Polo, the adventurous traveler was travelling through the thick forests of Assam. It was quite dark and he had problem in wading through the forest. Suddenly he fell inside an unwalled well of 130 metre depth. He struggled to climb up to get on to the level ground and escape. But unfortunately he found it difficult. He was climbing up 10 metres in the first hour whereas in the next hour he was getting dropped by four metres on account of slippery surface . This process continued viz. in the first hour he was climbing up 10 metres and in the next hour he was slipping down by 4 metres. How many hours he would have taken to climb to top of well?

a) 21 hours b) 20 hours c)41 hours d) none of these.

Answer : c) 41 hours.

Solution :

In the first hour he climbs 10 metres

In the second hour he slips down – 4 metres

So in 2 hours he climbs up 10 – 4 = 6 metres

hours metres

2 6

40 ?

In 40 hours he will climb up 40 x 6 / 2 = 120 metres. Since the depth of the well is 130 metres, in 41st hour he will climb another 10 metres and would had reached the top of well (before falling down by 4 metres again). So in 41 hours he climb up 10 metres and reach the top of the well.

Question 3

Mr.King Kong an European aged 52 years was suffering from various ailments such as high blood pressure, blood sugar, cholesterol. He was 5 feet 6 inches tall. Optimal weight for his height is 130 pounds. On 10th January 2012 he found his weight was 223 pounds. The doctors advised him to adopt weight planning. They prescribed exercises, food etc. On the first day he found he was able to reduce his weight by 8 pounds. He felt very happy. But he found that on the next day his weight increased by 3 pounds. He continued to perform exercises. On which date he would have been able to reduce his weight to optimal weight.

a) 14th February 2012 b) 15th February 2012 c) 25th February 2012 d) none of these.

Answer : a) 14th February 2012.

Solution :

Present weight – 223 pounds

Optimal weight – 130 pounds

Weight to be reduced – 223 – 130 = 93 pounds

Every two days his weight comes down by 5 pounds. (8-3 = 5 )

In 34 days his weight will be reduced by 85 pounds. And on 35th day he will be able to reduce his weight by 93 pounds to 130 pounds.

35th day from 10th January 2012 -14th February 2012.

Question 4

A group of students from Netherlands visited Chennai to study about the various aspects of life prevalent in Chennai. They also studied about the weather forecasts. The average temperature of days from Sunday to Wednesday was 36 degrees and that of from Monday to Thursday was 33.5 degrees, The temperature on Thursday was 2/3 of Sunday. What was the temperature on Sunday?

a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d) 38

Answer : b) 30 degrees

Solution :

Average Temperature from Sunday to Wednesday – 36.

Total temperature from Sunday to Wednesday – 36 x 4 = 144 deg.

Average temperature from Monday to Thursday – 33.5 deg.

Total temperature from Monday to Thursday – 33.5 x 4 = 134

If the total temperature from Monday to Wednesday be K

Then, Sunday’s temperature + K = 144 -> eq 1

Thursday’s temperature + K = 134 -> eq 2

It is stated that Thursday temperature was 2/3 of Sunday. Applying this to eq 2, we get :

2/3 (Sunday’s Temperature) + K = 134 -> eq 3

Eq 1 – Eq 3 => 1/3 (Sunday’s Temperature) = 10. Therefore, Sunday temperature = 30 deg.

Question 5

A prominent School in Chennai had classes from LKG to XII standard. A study was made about the marks scored by students of XII in a government examination. The average marks of 60 students in a class was 45. The average marks of the boys in the class is 40 and the average marks of the girls in the class is 50. What is the ratio between the number of boys and girls in the class?

a) 1: 1 b) 2 : 1 c) 3 : 1 d) none of these.

Answer : a) 1 : 1

Solution :

Total marks of 60 students = 60 x 45 = 2700

Suppose number of girls = x

Number of boys = (60 – x)

Number of girls X average marks of girls + Number of boys x average marks of boys = 2700

x X 50 + (60 – x) 40 = 2700

50x + 2400 – 40x = 2700

By simplifying we get x = 30. Number of boys = 30 . Number of girls = 60 – x = 60 – 30 = 30

Therefore ratio of number of boys to girls = 30 / 30 = 1

Question 6

The average number of visitors to a museum from Wednesday to Saturday was 2345. Average number of visitors to it from Thursday to next Sunday was 2100. If the number of visitors to the museum on Sunday was 1820, find the number of visitors to the museum on Wednesday.

a) 2700 b) 2900 c) 2400 d) 2800

Answer : d) 2800.

Solution :

The average no. of of visitors from Wednesday to Saturday – 2345

Total number of visitors from Wednesday to Saturday – 2345 x 4 = 9380

Average number of visitors from Thursday to Sunday – 2100

Total number of visitors from Thursday to Sunday – 2100 x 4 = 8400

Number of visitors on Sunday – 1820.

So number of visitors from Thursday to Saturday – 8400 – 1820 = 6580

But it is given that, Number of visitors from Wednesday to Saturday – 9380

Therefore, Number of visitors on Wednesday = 9380 – 6580 = 2800

Question 7

A prominent School at Siliguri had three batches of students numbering 35,40 and 50 respectively. The average marks of these batches is 40, 45 and 55 respectively. What is the average mark of all the three batches students put together?

a) 48.6 b) 49.6 c) 51 d) 47.6

Answer : d) 47.6

Solution :

Total marks of all 3 batches = Number of students in I batch x Average of I batch + Number of students in II batch x Average of I batch + Number of students in I batch x Average of I batch = [ (35 x 40) + (40 x 45) + (50 x 55)]

Total number of students in all III batches = 35 + 40 + 50 = 125

Average marks of all students of III batches = Total marks of all 3 batches / Total number of students.

= [ (35 x 40) + (40 x 45) + (50 x 55)] divided by 125 = 47.6

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Dear Reader, most of you would be facing HR interviews often conducted by companies following tech interview rounds. Especially in HR round where questions are often unpredictable, going readily prepared is a tedious task. However, there are some common questions which you can often always expect. Let us lay out what these questions and some good ways to answer those.

**1. Tell me about yourself**

When asked about yourself, the panel generally would want to check your communication , interpersonal skills ,fluency etc and not your personal details like families,hobbies,interest, etc. However information about your education, strengths and weaknesses can be noted by the panel as they directly indicate your readiness to take a job. Hence you should really focus on important aspects like education while taking care of your clarity in communicating.

**2. Why Should I hire you?**

The panel expects to know about your capability for the position, self-confidence, willingness in learning new technologies, ability to work hard, participation in organization’s growth etc. Hence your answer should convince them that you are a confident team player and you could fit their organization well.

**3.Where do you want to be five years from now?**

Generally this question could be an indirect way to check if you would be ready to work for a good term rather than a short temporary term.

**4. What salary do you want for this job?**

One of the best response would be figure out the value you could expect as per the industrial standards. This will give them an impression that you have done your homework and not overshooting the industry standards. (Generally freshers will not be asked this question.)

**5. Do you have questions for me?**

First thank him for giving you the opportunity. Then you might ask your genuine questions about companies current projects, organizational culture etc. (But be sure not to post questions just for the sake of asking questions.)

**Location : **Bangalore

**Category : **IT

**Description In Brief :** Freshers Can apply for Software Programmer Openings at O-Range Infotech. Requirements include good knowledge in C, C++, Java, SQL & MYSQL. Job would require you to interface with end users and verify project requirements, verify functionality through implementation, etc…

**To Apply To This Job Posted On Monster : ****Click HERE**

Dear Reader, Below are three practice relative speed problems. These are actually simple but could be lengthy consuming time.

**Question 1**

Two persons – Srikanth and Kashyap start at –6 am on 19th February 2012 from two places – Coimbatore and Hyderabad ( 900 km away at ) — each going towards the other end in two cars. Rupashri starts from Coimbatore at 7 am on the same day from Coimbatore towards Hyderabad. Srikanth, Rupashri and Kashyap travel at 40 km/hour, 60 km/hour and 50 km/hour respectively. Which pair will meet on the way – Srikanth –Kashyap or Kashyap-Rupashri or Srikanth-Rupashri.

a) Srikanth-Kashyap b) Srikanth-Rupashri c) Kashyap-Rupashri d) none of these.

**Answer : **b) Srikanth –Rupashri.

Solution :

**Case I :** Consider Srikanth and Kashyap

Distance between Coimbatore and Hyderabad – 900 km

Srikanth and Kashyap start at 6 am and their speeds are respectively 40 km/hour and 50 km/hour. So relative speed is 40 + 50 = 90 km. Hence they will meet after [distance between them/relative speed] = 900/90 = 10 hours from 6 am i.e 4 pm

**Case II:** Consider Rupashri and Kashyap

Rupashri starts at 7 am from Coimbatore – speed 60 km/hour. But since Kashyap had started at 6 am (1 hour earlier at 50Km/hr) he would have travelled 50 km by 7am. Distance between them = 900 – 50 =850 km. Relative speed = 60 + 50 = 110.

Rupashri and Kashyap will meet after [distance between them/relative speed] = 850/110 = 7 and 8/11 hours.

**Case III:** Consider Rupashri and Srikanth

On the other hand When Rupashri starts – 7 AM Srikanth would have travelled 40 km only (as Srikanth would had started at 6 am travelling at 40 Km/hr).

The speed of Rupashri and Srikanth = 60 and 40 km/hour. Relative speed of Rupashri with respect to Srikanth = 60 – 40 = 20 km per hour (we are subtracting the speeds in relative speed calculation as they are both travelling in same direction) and hence Rupashri will cross/meet Srikanth after [distance between them/relative speed] = 40/20 = 2 hours i.e. at 9 am.

**Inference :** Considering all discussed cases above, Srikanth-Rupashri will meet first at 9 am.

**Question 2**

The distance between Chennai and other cities is given below:

Agartala | 3356 | Gurgaon | 2088 | Panaji | 923 |

Agra | 1892 | Guwahati | 2718 | Paradwip | 1359 |

Ahmedabad | 1800 | Gwalior | 1768 | Pathankot | 2570 |

Aizawl | 3281 | Haldia | 1660 | Patna | 2022 |

Ajmer | 1978 | Hassan | 518 | Pondicherry | 165 |

Priya starts from Chennai at 8 AM, 20th February 2012 towards Ahmedabad. Shriya starts from Ahmedabad on the same day at 9 AM towards Chennai. Ramya starts from Chennai at 10 AM on the same day towards Ahmedabad. Which pair will meet on the way – Priya – Shriya or Ramya – Priya or Ramya – Shriya? Assume Priya travelled at 100 km/hour, Ramya travelled at 110 km/hour and Shriya travelled at 90 km/hour.

a) Priya-Shriya

b) Ramya – Priya

c) Ramya – Shriya

d) None of these.

**Answer : **a) Priya- Shriya

Solution :

In these types of problems careful analysis of information and appropriate understanding is very important. It is equally important to learn to identify relevant and irrelevant information in the data provided and discard the unwanted information. For example in this question distances between Chennai to other places except that of Ahmedabad is not required (unwarranted ) and can be safely ignored.

**Case I**

Priya starts at 8 am – speed – 100 km/hour. Shriya starts from Ahmedabad at 9 am with a speed of 90 km/hour. Original distance between Chennai and Ahmedabad is 1800 Km. But since Shriya has started 1 hour late, Priya would had covered 100 Kms (travelling at 100 Km/hr) by 9 am. Therefore, at 9 am distance between Priya and Shriya is 1800 – 100 = 1700 km. Relative speed = 100 + 90 = 190 km/hour. They will meet at [Distance between them / Relative speed] = 1700/190 = 8 18/19 hours from 9 am i.e. around 5.57 pm.

**Case II**

Ramya starts from Chennai at 10 am at 110 km/hour. But since Shriya has started at 9 am, she would had covered 90 Km (travelling at 90 Km/hr). At 10 am distance between Ramya and Shriya = 1800 + 90 = 1890 km. Relative speed = 110 + 90 = 200 km/hour. They will meet at [Distance between them / Relative speed] =1890/200 hours = 9 and 9/20 hours after 10 am. And it will be around 7.27 pm.

**Case III**

At 10 am when Ramya starts Priya would have travelled 200 km (as Priya had started at 2 hours earlier i.e at 8 am, she would had covered 200 Km in 2 hours till 10 am when Ramya starts). At 10 am Distance between Ramya and Priya is 200km. Relative speed is 110-100 = 10 km/hour (we are subtracting the speeds for relative speed calculation as both are travelling in same direction) and they will meet at [Distance between them / Relative speed] = 200/10 = 20 hours . But we know that Priya would had covered the entire distance between Chennai and Ahmedabad in Distance between two cities / Priya’s Speed = 1800/100 = 18 hours. This means that Ramya will not be able to meet Priya before reaching Ahmedabad.

**Inference : **Considering all the above cases, Priya- Shriya will be meeting first.

**Question 3**

The chart showing the distance of different cities/towns from Madurai is given below:

City | Distance (Kms) | City | Distance (Kms) | City | Distance (Kms) |
---|---|---|---|---|---|

Agartala | 3800 | Guntur | 840 | Panaji | 1024 |

Agra | 2304 | Gurgaon | 2500 | Paradwip | 1803 |

Ahmedabad | 1938 | Guwahati | 3162 | Pathankot | 2982 |

Akola | 1507 | Hasan | 533 | Porbandar | 2332 |

Allahabad | 2100 | Hubli | 851 | Purulia | 2146 |

Ambala | 2698 | Hyderabad | 1000 | Raipur | 1773 |

Karthik travelled from Madurai to Gurgaon in his car with an average speed of 130 km/hour starting at 5 am. Jeeva travelled from Hyderabad towards Madurai in his car with an average speed of 60 km/hour starting at 10 am on the same day. Surya started at 10 am for Hyderabad from Madurai and he travelled at an average speed of 40 km/hour. Vijay started at 5 am from Gurgaon towards Madurai and he was travelling at 120 km/hour. Which pair will meet first and at what time

a) Vijay – Karthik at 1 pm

b) Surya – Jeeva at 5 pm

c) Karthik – Vijay at 3 pm

d) Jeeva – Surya at 8 pm

**Answer : **c) Karthik – Vijay at 3 pm

Solution :

Relative speed of Karthik & Vijay pair – 130 + 120 = 250 km/hour.

Since both Vijay and Karthik start at 5 am the distance between them at the start will be exactly the distance between Madurai and Gurgaon from the chart = 2500 km. They will meet at [Distance between them / Relative speed] = 2500/250 = 10 hours from 5 am = 3 pm

Relative speed of Surya & Jeeva = 40 + 60 = 100 km/hour

Since both Surya and Jeeva started at 10 am, distance between them at the start will be exactly the distance between Madurai and Hyderabad from the chart – 100 km. They will meet at [Distance between them / Relative speed] = 1000/100 = 10 hours from 10 am = 8 pm.

So the pair Karthik- Vijay will meet first at 3 pm.

1. An electron moving in an electromagnetic field moves in a

(a) In a straight path

(b) Along the same plane in the direction of its propagation

(c) Opposite to the original direction of propagation

(d) In a sine wave

Ans. (b)

2. The total work done on the particle is equal to the change in its kinetic energy

(a) Always

(b) Only if the forces acting on the body are conservative.

(c) Only if the forces acting on the body are gravitational.

(d) Only if the forces acting on the body are elastic.

Ans. (a)

3. The following unit measure energy:

(a) Kilo-watt hour.

(b) Volt*volt/sec*ohm.

(c) Pascal*foot*foot

(d) (Coulomb*coulomb)*farad

Ans. (a)

4. Astronauts in stable orbits around the earth are in a state of weightlessness because

(a) There is no gravitational force acting on them.

(b) The satellite and the air inside it have an acceleration equal to that of gravitational acceleration there.

(c) The gravitational force of the earth and the sun balance giving null resultant.

(d) There is no atmosphere at the height at which the satellites move.

Ans. (b)

5. An organ pipe, open at both ends and another organ pipe closed at one end,

will resonate with each other, if their lengths are in the ratio of

(a) 1:1

(b) 1:4

(c) 2:1

(d) 1:2

Ans. (c)

6. During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas

(a) Its internal energy increases.

(b) Its internal energy decreases.

(c) Its internal energy does not change.

(d) The work done by the gas is not equal to the quantity of heat absorbed by it.

Ans. (c)

7. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected.

If the plates of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles

(a) The charge on the capacitor increases.

(b) The voltage across the plates increases.

(c) The capacitance increases.

(d) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor decreases.

Ans. (b)

8. Two equal negative charges q are fixed at point (0,a) and (0,-a) on the y-axis.

A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a,0) on the x-axis. The charge Q will

(a) Execute simple harmonic motion about the origin

(b) Move to the origin and remain at rest

(c) Move to infinity

(d) Execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion

Ans. (d)

9. A square conducting loop of length Lon a side carries a current I.

The magnetic field at the center of the loop is

(a) Independant of L

(b) Proportional to L*L

(c) Inversely proportoinal to L

(d) Directly proportional to L

Ans. (c)

10. The focal length of a convex lens when placed in air and then in water will

(a) Increase in water with respect to air

(b) Increase in air with respect to water

(c) Decrease in water with respect to. air

(d) Remain the same

Ans. (a)

11. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted from the surface is dependant on

(a) The intensity of incident radiation

(b) The potential of the collector electrode

(c) The frequency of incident radiation

(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface

Ans. (c)

12. An electron orbiting in a circular orbit around the nucleus of the atom

(a) Has a magnetic dipole moment

(b) Exerts an electric force on the nucleus equal to that on it by the nucleus

(c) Does not produce a magnetic induction at the nucleus

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

13. The X-rays beam coming from an X-ray tube will be:

(a) Monochromatic

(b) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain minimum wavelength

(c) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength

(d) Having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength

Ans. (c)

14. The mass number of a nucleus is

(a) Always less than its atomic number

(b) Always more than its atomic number

(c) Always equal to its atomic number

(d) Sometimes more and sometimes equal to its atomic number

Ans. (d)

15. Two successive elements belonging to the first transition series have the same number

of electrons partially filling orbital. They are

(a) V and Cr

(b) Ti and V

(c) Mn and Cr

(d) Fe and Co

Ans. (c)

16. When n+l has the same value for two or more orbitals, the new electron enters the orbital where

(a) n is maximum

(b) n is minimum

(c) l is maximum

(d) l is minimum

Ans. (b)

17. A balloon filled with ethylene is pricked with a sharp pointed needle and quickly placed in a tank

full of hydrogen at the same pressure. After a while the balloon would have

(a) Shrunk

(b) Enlarged

(c) Completely collapsed

(d) Remain unchanged in size

Ans. (b)

18. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) The ratio of the mean speed to the rms speed is independent of temperature

(b) Tthe square of the mean speed of the molecules is equal to the mean squared speed at a certain temperature

(c) Mean kinetic energy of the gas molecules at any given temperature is independent of the mean speed

(d) None

Ans. (b)

19. Which of the following statements represent Raoult’s Law

(a) Mole fraction of solvent = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of the solvent

(b) Mole fraction of solute = ratio of vapour pressure of the solution to vapour pressure of the solvent

(c) Mole fraction of solute = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution

(d) Mole fraction of solvent = lowering of vapour pressure of the solution

Ans. (a)

20. Elements having the same atomic number and the same atomic mass are known as

(a) Isotopes

(b) Isotones

(c) Isomers

(d) None of the above

21.Which is the most acidic amongst

(a) Nitrophenol

(b) O-toulene

(c) Phenol

(d) Cresol

22. Pure water does not conduct electricity because it is

(a) Almost not ionised

(b) Low boiling

(c) Neutral

(d) Readily decomposed

Ans. (a)

23. In a salt bridge, KCl is used because

(a) It is an electrolyte

(b) The transference number of K+ and Cl¯ is nearly the same

(c) It is a good conductor of electricity

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

24. A depolarizer used in the dry cell batteries is

(a) KCl

(b) MnO2

(c) KOH

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

25. The hydrolysis of alkyl halides by aqueous NaOH is best termed as

(a) Electrophylic substitution reaction

(b) Electrophylic addition reaction

(c) Nnucleophylic addition reaction

(d) Nucleophylic substitution reaction

Ans. (d)

26. The hydrocarbon that gives a red precipitate with ammoniacal cuprous chloride is (where ‘º’ means a triple bond)

(a) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3

(b) CH3-CºC-CH3

(c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2

(d) CH3-CH2-CºCH

Ans. (d)

27. Which of the following reagents is neither neutral nor basic

(a) Lucas’ reagent

(b) Tollen’s reagent

(c) Bayer’s reagent

(d) Fehling’s solution

Ans. (a)

28. The substance which is most easily nitrated

(a) Toluene

(b) Bbenzene

(c) Nitrobenzene

(d) Chlorobenzene

Ans. (a)

29. Carbylamine reaction is a test for

(a) Primary amine

(b) Secondary amine

(c) Tertiary amine

(d) Quarternary ammonium salt

Ans. (a)

30. Which of the following oxides cannot be reduced by carbon to obtain metal

(a) ZnO

(b) Al2O3

(c) Fe2O3

(d) PbO

Ans. (b)

31. Which of the following is not an oxide ore?

(a) Cassiterite

(b) Siderite

(c) Pyrolusite

(d) Bauxite

Ans. (b)

32. Which among the following is called philosopher’s wool

(a) Cellulose

(b) Calamine

(c) Stellite

(d) Cerussite

Ans. (c)

33. Out of 10 white, 9 black and 7 red balls, in how many ways can we select one or more balls

(a) 234

(b) 52

(c) 630

(d) 879

Ans. (d)

34. A and B throw a dice. The probability that A’s throw is not greater than B’s is

(a) 5/12

(b) 7/12

(c) 11/12

(d) 5/36

Ans. (b)

35. Given two numbers a and b. Let A denote the single AM between these and S denote the sum of n AMs

between them. Then S/A depends upon

(a) n

(b) n,a

(c) n,b

(d) n,a,b

Ans. (a)

36. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax²+bx+c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals,

then, a/c, b/a, c/b are in

(a) AP

(b) GP

(c) HP

(d) None of the these

Ans. (c)

In the following questions ~ represents the integral sign-for eg. 1~2[f(x)] means integration of

the function f(x) over the interval 1 to2.

37. Value of -1~2[|2-x²|]dx, ie integration of the function |2-x²| over the interval -1 to 2.

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) None of the above

Ans. (d)

38. If 0~P[log sinx]dx=k,then the value of 0~P/4[log(1 + tan x)]dx ,where P stands for pi,is

(a) -k/4

(b) k/4

(c) -k/8

(d) k/8

Ans. (c)

39. If a,b,c be in GP and p,q be respectively AM between a, b and b, c then

(a) 2/b=1/p+1/q

(b) 2/b=1/p-1/q

(c) 2=a/p-c/q

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

40. A solution of KMnO4 is reduced to MnO2 .The normality of solution is 0.6.The molarity is

(a) 1.8M

(b) 0.6M

(c) 0.1M

(d) 0.2M

Ans. (d)

The questions 41-46 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question

and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the

statements are sufficient for answering the questions. The correct answer is

(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.

(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.

(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.

(D) If both together are not sufficient.

41. What is John’s age?

(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be

(II) Dias was born 5 years ago

Ans. (C)

42. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?

(I) City A is 90 kms from City B

(II) City B is 30 kms from City C

Ans. (D)

43.Is A=C ? A,B,C are real numbers

(I) A-B=B-C

(II) A-2C = C-2B

Ans. (C)

44. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?

(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2

(II) The common difference is -1/2

Ans. (A)

45.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?

(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast

(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow

Ans. (D)

46. What is the value of A if A is an integer?

(I) A4 = 1

(II) A3 + 1 = 0

Ans. (B)

47. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels

5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?

(a) 5.5 kms

(b) 3 km

(c) 13 km

(d) 6.4 km

Ans. (b)

48. X’s father’s wife’s father’s granddaughter uncle will be related to X as

(a) Son

(b) Nephew

(c) Uncle

(d) Grandfather

Ans. (c)

49. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31

(a) 43

(b) 33

(c) 41

(d) 45

Ans. (a)

50. If in a certain code “RANGE” is coded as 12345 and “RANDOM” is coded as 123678.

Then the code for the word “MANGO” would be

(a) 82357

(b) 89343

(c) 84629

(d) 82347

Ans. (d)

51. If “PROMPT” is coded as QSPLOS ,then “PLAYER” should be

(a) QMBZFS

(b) QWMFDW

(c) QUREXM

(d) URESTI

Ans. (a)

The questions 52-53 are based on the following data

6 people A, B, C, D, E and F sit around a table for dinner. Since A does not like C, he doesn’t sit either opposite or beside C.B and F always like to

sit opposite each other.

52. If A is beside F then who is are the two neighbors of B?

(a) D and C

(b) E and C

(c) D and E

(d) Either (a) or (b)

Ans. (c)

53. If D is adjacent to F then who is adjacent to C?

(a) E and B

(b) D and A

(c) D and B

(d) either (a) or (c)

Ans. (d)

54. Complete the sequence A, E ,I ,M ,Q ,U , _ , _

(a) B, F

(b) Y, C

(c) G, I

(d) K, O

Ans. (b)

55. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels

6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?

(a) 13km east

(b) 13km northeast

(c) 13km northwest

(d) 13km west

Ans. (c)

56. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times.

What is the probability that they tell the truth at the same time

(a) 0.8

(b) 0.48

(c) 0.6

(d) 0.14

Ans.(b)

57. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to

(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling

(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling

(c) FCFS

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

58. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes

(a) Uplinking

(b) Downlinking

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

59. The format specifier “-%d” is used for which purpose in C

(a) Left justifying a string

(b) Right justifying a string

(c) Removing a string from the console

(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable

Ans. (a)

60. Virtual functions allow you to

(a) Create an array of type pointer-to-base-class that can hold pointers to derived classes

(b) Create functions that have no body

(c) Group objects of different classes so they can all be accessed by the same function code

(d) Use the same function call to execute member functions to objects from different classes

62. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case

and a worst time algorithm in worst case is

(a) Quick Sort

(b) Heap Sort

(c) Merge Sort

(d) Insert Sort

Ans. (a)

63. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?

(a) Details

(b) Coding

(c) Decisions

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

64. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler

(a) Reallocation

(b) Allocation

(c) Linking

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans. (d)

65. Banker’s algorithm for resource allocation deals with

(a) Deadlock prevention

(b) Deadlock avoidance

(c) Deadlock recovery

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

66. Thrashing can be avoided if

(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory

(b) The speed of CPU is increased

(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased

(d) All of the above

Ans. (a)

67. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?

(a) Narrowband channels

(b) Simplex channels

(c) Full-duplex channels

(d) Mixedband channels

Ans. (b)

68. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except

(a) Project name

(b) Problem descriptions

(c) Feasible alternative

(d) Data flow diagrams

Ans. (d)

69. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?

(a) To detect problems in protocols

(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link

(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link

(d) To determine the flow of data

Ans. (a)

70. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?

(a) Coaxial cable

(b) Fiber optic cable

(c) Microwave circuits

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

71. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?

(a) Cache memory

(b) Magnetic bubble memory

(c) Magnetic core memory

(d) RAM

Ans. (a)

72. A shift register can be used for

(a) Parallel to serial conversion

(b) Serial to parallel conversion

(c) Digital delay line

(d) All the above

Ans. (d)

73. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady’s anomaly occurs?

(a) FIFO

(b) LRU

(c) LFU

(d) NRU

Ans. (a)

74. Subschema can be used to

(a) Create very different, personalized views of the same data

(b) Present information in different formats

(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema’s description

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

1. Five questions based on figures. Three / four figures were given and it was asked to find the next figure.

2. Ms. Robert and her husband invited 3 couples for lunch. They had three seats on either side of the table and one at each end .The 4 women were Jannet, Rose, Geraldine and Anitha and the 4 men were Smith,Bill,Jack and Harry. Ms Robert had some particular seating arrangements. The persons at the head and foot of the table must differ in sex.

Persons of the same sex may not be next to each other on either side of the table. Jack and Geraldine may not be on either side. Harry may not be seated on the same side as Anitha

—–

If Geraldine is in the middle seat and Harry is at the head ,which of the following must be true ?

Anitha sits at the foot

Smith sits at the foot

Jannet sits on the same side as Geraldine

Bill is on the side opposite to Geraldine

Jack is on the side opposite to Geraldine

3. Who of the following could not be at the foot if Anitha is at the head ?

A) Rose

B) Smith

C) Bill

D) Jack

E) Harry

4. Where must Jack sit if Bill is at the foot, Harry is at an end on one side and Geraldine is at an end on the other side ?

A) At the end

B) Middle seat on Harry’s side

C) End seat on Harry’s side

D) Middle seat on Geraldine’s side

E) End seat on Geraldine’s side

5. If Jack is at the head, Smith in middle seat and Geraldine in the othe middle seat what else may be true ?

A) Jannet is at the foot

B) Rose is on Geraldine’s side

C) Anitha is on Geraldine’s side

D) Bill is on Smith’s side

E) Harry is on Smith’s side

6. If Jack is at the foot, Harry is in the middle seat ,who must be seated at the head?

A) Jannet

B) Rose

C) Anitha

D) Smith

E) Bill

7. A parking expert is evaluating a parkign space (row) for 7 cars. One car has not yet arrived. We will name the cars Audi, Bettle, Citroen, Diamler, Escort and Ford and number the evenly spaced lots 1 through 7, from left to right. The parking expert has specified the below rules should be followed:

Cars Escort and Ford must be in adjacent lots

The distance from Audi to Bettle must be same as that from Citroen to Diamler

The empty lot must not be at the extreme right.

Which of the following parkings is according to the rules ?

Bettle, empty, Audi, Escort, Ford, Diamler, Citroen

Bettle, Citroen, empty, Diamler, Audi, Ford, Escort

Diamler, Escort, Bettle, Citroen, Ford, empty, Audi

Diamler, Ford, Escort, Audi, Citroen, empty, Bettle

Empty, Diamler, Citroen, Ford, Escort, Audi, Bettle

8. Which of the following could be an empty lot ?

7

2

3

4

6

9. If Audi is in 1 and Citroen is in 3,which lot is empty ?

2

4

5

6

7

10. If Audi is in 3 and Bettleis in 4 what could be true ?

Citroen is in 6

Citroen is in 5

Diamler is in 6

Ford is in 1

6 is empty

11. If Ford is the second lot, what else must be true ?

Audi is in 3

Bettle is in 4

Citroenis in 5

Diamleris in 7

Escort is in 1

12. If January 26, 1948 was a Monday, then what day was January 26, 1998?

13. If June 10, 1950 was a wednesday then which was the nearest year when a June 10 was a Wednesday again?

14. What is the angle formed between the hour and minute hands of a watch at 1.05?

15. If the hour hand is passed by the minute hand once in every 55 minutes, what can be said about the watch?

Is it on time, slow or fast?

16. Two wall clocks ring together at 12pm. One loses 5 mins while the other gains 5 minutes every hour. They will rign together after how many hours?

17. A wall clock gains 7 minutes every 30 minutes. This clock is set to 12 O’clock and it strats ticking. What is the right time when it shows 6:30?

**MU Sigma Placement Paper 2011 (Paper 1) **

1. What is the output of the following code?

x=0;y=1;

for(j=1;j<4;j++){

x=x+j;

y*=j;

}

2. There is a 200 miles long tunnel. one train enters the tunnel at a speed of 200mph while the other trains enter the tunnel in the opposite direction at a speed of 1000 mph. A bee travels at a speed of 1500 mph enters the tunnel goes to and back until it reaches the train. What is the distance covered by the bee when the two train collides (the bee survives)

3. List the two advantages of views.

4. Which layer is encryption and decryption done

5. What are the various modes used to send data over the network

6. Write a query to display the name of the students whose total marks is divisible by 25 (total marks may be 175, 200, 150…)

7. P(S1)

a++;

P(S2)

v++;

V(S2)

V(S1)

P-wait, V-signal, S1 and S2 are semaphores. Consider two threads running. Is there a deadlock .If yes in which situation does the deadlock occur.

8. How do you find the port number of the remote host?

9. (Date; who)>logfile

Date; who>logfile

What is the difference between the two statements.

10. How do you find the machine MAC address

A) 0

B) 8

C) 16

D) 32

**Ans. A**

11. How many children did not try any of the rides. ?

A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

Ans. 15.

12. kids * 3 rides = Rs. 60

(55-20=)35 kids * 2 rides = Rs. 70

60 + 70 = Rs. 130

So, Rs. (145 – 130 = ) 15 are left for the other (85 – 55 = ) 30 kids . so only 15 of them can take a ride and rest 15 will be left out.

145 rides were taken. 20 of them took all three, i.e. Rs. 60 were spent, so 145-60= Rs. 85 are left for the others. Total kids were 85, so rest were 65. out of these 65,

12. How many children took exactly one ride?

A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

**Ans. 15**

13. Four cities are connected by a road network as shown in the figure. In how many ways can you start from any city and come back to it without travelling on the same road more than once ?

A) 8

B) 12

C) 16

D) 20

**Ans. 12. **

Consider the top city, the following are the 3 routes possible, starting from the leftmost edge. Since there are 3 edges emanating from each city and the figure is perfectly symmetrical, these 3 routes are possible from each edge, hence for any given city, the total number of routes = 4 * 3 = 12.

14. Directions for question nos 14 to 15

A, B, and C are three numbers, Let

@(A, B)= Average of A and B

*(A, B)=Product of A and B

/(A, B)=A divided by B

15 If A=2 and B=4 the value of @( / (*(A,B),B),A) would be

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 16

**Ans. 2 **

16. Sum of A and B is given by

A) *(@(A, B), 2)

B) /(@(A,B),2)

C) @(*(A,B),2)

D) @(/(A,B),2

**Ans. A.**

17. Let x<0, 0

A) (x2-z2)has to be positive.

B) yz can be less than one.

C) xy can never be zero

D) (y2-z2) is always negative

**Ans. A.**

18. If A’s income is 25% less than B’s ,by what % is B’s income greater than that of A ?

A) 35%

B) 25%

C) 30%

D) None of these

**Ans. D.**

Directions for Questions Nos: 19 to 20

Kya-Kya is an island in the south pacific .The inhabitants of Kya-Kya always Answer any question with two sentences, one of which is always true and other is always false.

19 You are walking on a road and come to a fork. You ask the inhabitants Ram, Laxman, Lila,”Which road will take me to the village?”

Ram says,”I never speak to strangers. I am new to this place”

Laxman says,”I am married to Lila. Take the left road”.

Lila says,”I am married to ram. He is not new to this place”

Which of the following is true?

A) Left road takes you to the village

B) Right road takes you to the village

C) Lila is married to laxman

D) None of above

**Ans. A.**

Ram said he never talked to strangers, but he spoke to a stranger, this meAns that this statement is false, hence his other statement must be true, hence the second statement of Lila is false, hence her first statement is true that is she is married to ram, hence the first statement of Laxman is false, hence his second statement is true, that is take the left road.

20. You find that your boat is stolen.You question three inhabitants of the island and they reply as follows:

John says,”I didn’t do it. Mathew didn’t do it”

Matthew says,”I didn’t do it. Krishna didn’t do it.”

Krishna says,”I didn’t do it .I don’t know who did it.”

Who stole your boat?

A) John

B) Matthew

C) Krishna

D) None of them.

**Ans. B**

**MU Sigma Placement Paper 2011 (Paper 2) :-**

1. A puts a share of 1/3, B puts a share of 1/2, and the remaining share is put by c,and start a business their total profit is Rs 4800, what is the share of A?

2. what is the remainder of (3682*3684*3686) divided by 19?

3. Mr. loyd wants to fence his Square shaped land of 120 Sqft each side.If apole is laid every 12ft how many poles do he need?

4. if 105 is represented as 253 in base 6,how is 253 represented in base 6?

5. the cost of 5 chairs and 3 mugs is Rs 1900, and the cost of 8 chairs and 5 mugs is Rs 2900, what is the cost of 5 chairs and 8 mugs?

6. Mr Roy found an old bill which shows that he brought 10 hens for Rs_67.92_ the first and the last digits were missing. what was the cost of each hen?

7. In a school football team the captain was the eldest of all with ,the next was the goal keeper with 26, in a particular match both the players were shown red cards. the average age of the remaining people raised by? what was the average age of the team.?

8. Which of the following is false

(a) QA is a process defined to attain Quality Standards

(b) QC is testing of the product during its production workflow

(c) A Test case could contain many Test PlAns.

(d) A Test Plan could contain many Test Script & Test Cases

**Ans. c**

9. A Printing Machine that trAnsfers impressions from Flat Plate to Rubber Cylinder, thence to paper is called

(a) Laser Printer

(b) Press, Offset

(c) Digital Printer

(d) All of the above

**Ans. maybe Offset**

10. Printing process in which ink is applied to paper or board from raised portions of printing plates or type is called:

(a) Printing, Letterpress

(b) Printing, Flexographic

(c) Printing, Silk screen

(d) None of the above

**Ans. maybe letterpress**

11. Yellow (lemon), Magenta (cold red), Cyan (blue-green) are the three

(a) Process Colors

(b) Monitor Colors

(c) Special Colors

(d) Spot Colors

12. Leading specifies:

(a) The space between the lines in a paragraph.

(b) The space between the base of a line to the base of the following line in a paragraph.

(c) The space between the top of the X height and the bottom of the X height of the following line in a paragraph

(d) The space between the beard of the top line and the beard of the bottom-line.

13. Which is a typical page layout program out of the following software products:

(a) Adobe Photoshop

(b) Adobe PageMaker

(c) Macromedia FreeHand

(d) Macromedia Director

14. what does the hexanumber E78 in radix 7.

(a) 12455

(b) 14153

(c) 14256

(d) 13541

(e) 131112

**Ans: (d) **

15. Q is not equal to zero and k = (Q x n – s)/2 find n?

(a) (2 x k + s)/Q

(b) (2 x s x k)/Q

(c) (2 x k – s)/Q

(d) (2 x k + s x Q)/Q (e) (k + s)/Q

16. If B occurs which must occur

(a) D

(b) D and G

(c) G and H

(d) F and G

(e) J ans: (a)

18. If J occurs which must have occured

a) E

(b) either B or C

(c) both E & F

(d) B

(e) both B & C

**Ans: (b) **

19. which may occurs as a result of cause not mentioned

(1) D (2) A (3) F

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 & 2 (d) 2 & 3 (e) 1,2,3

**Ans: (c) **

20.. E occurs which one cannot occurs

(a) A

(b) F

(c) D

(d) C

(e) J

**Ans: (b) **