BHEL Placement Papers – 2008

BHEL is the largest engineering and manufacturing enterprise in India in the energy-related/infrastructure sector, today. BHEL was established more than 40 years ago, ushering in the indigenous Heavy Electrical Equipment industry in India – a dream that has been more than realized with a well-recognized track record of performance. The company has been earning profits continuously since 1971-72 and paying dividends since 1976-77. … Read more
BHEL Placement Papers (2008)
1. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to. = 1.41
2. A perfect gas at 270C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is = 3270C
3. An engine operates between temperature of 9000K and T2 and another engine between T2 and 8000K. For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be. = 6500K
4. Internal energy of a substance depends on = Temperature
5. Work done in compressing 1kg of gas adiabatically from p1,V1,T1 to p2, V2, T2 is equal to = Cv(T2-T1)
6. The unit of entropy is = J/kg 0K
7. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to = pLAN/2
8. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine : a) 2 stroke petrol engine b)4 stroke petrol engine c) Diesel engine d) steam engine e) Gas turbine. = (d)
9. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the: a) exhaust will be smoky b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves c) exhaust temperature will be high d) engine starts overheating e) all of the above. = (e)
10. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at: = 0.45 to 0.6mm
11. A distributor in spark ignition engines performs the function of : = Providing the correct firing order in engine
12. Which of the following does not relate to C.I. engine:: a) fuel pump b) fuel injector c) governor d) carburetor e) flywheel = (d)
13. Air fuel ratio in a jet engine is = 60:1
14. What is the value of Prandtl No.?
15. In domestic refrigerator, the tubes at the back of the refrigerator are: a) evaporator b) condenser c) capillary tubes d)
16. Which refrigerants has the highest critical point temperature. = Freon-11
17. Wet bulb temperature is. = indication of amount of moisture in air
18. On psychrometric chart, dry bulb temperature lines are. = Vertical
19. Surface tension has the units. = newtons/m
20. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the. = centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
21. A pressure of 25m of head of water is equal to. =245kN/m2
22. For a submerged body to be in stable equilibrium, the centre of gravity should be. =Below the centre of buoyancy.
23. The actual velocity at vena contracta for flow through an orifice from a reservoir of height H=?. =Cvv2gH
24. A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2.5kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is. = 6
25. In a free vortex motion: = each particle moves in a circular path with a speed varying inversely as the distance from the centre.
26. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm, Flow-1200l.p.m, Head-20m, Power-5H.P. If its speed is increased to 1500rpm, new flow will be.: = 1800l.p.m
27. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open.
28. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2
29. M.I. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = pr4/2
30. A projectile is fired at an angle ? to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when ? is . =450
31. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds with uniform acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg.
32. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from the wall. What should be the co-efficient of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains in equilibrium. = 0.21
33. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5Ã-105 joules. The mass of the car will be. =3000kg.
34. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) and the central diop is y, the horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR
35. A beam of length l, having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends. The moments at mid span will be: = wl2/8.
36. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1.5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5MN/m2, then the hoop stress will be. = 100N/m2
37. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is turning at 250rpm and B at 300rpm. Which shaft must have greater diameter.: = B
38. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel and attached at free end by a spring of spring constant k. The equivalent spring constant of combination is; = 1.5k.
39. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair.
40. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is. = Universal coupling.
41. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use: = Spiral gear.
42. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, the centre lines of both gears being joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm. = 5 rev.
43. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary critical speed.
44. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis.
45. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.
46. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears.
47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel
48. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron
49. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm
50. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by: = EDM
51. What kind of abrasive cut off wheel should be used to cut concrete, stone and masonry? =Diamond grit.
52. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of: = Fixed cost + Variable cost.
53. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is : =deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
54. PERT is: = event oriented technique
55. Bar charts are suitable for: = minor works.
56. ? on a PERT/CPM chart represents: = a significant event representing some mile-stone
57. Electron volt is the unit of : = Energy.
58. Seamless tubes are made by?
59. Reheating in gas turbine results in: = increase of work ratio and decrease of thermal efficiency.
60. Why DC current is not used in transformer?
61. What is the purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines: = to convert the kinetic energy into pressure energy.
62. A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1m and penetrates the sand to 1m. what is the resistance force of the sand?
63. Two cars travel in the same direction at 40km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in the opposite direction at 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between the two cars?

BSNL PAPER

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. formed in October, 2000, is World’s 7th largest Telecommunications Company providing comprehensive range of telecom services in India: Wireline, CDMA mobile, GSM Mobile, Internet, Broadband, Carrier service, MPLS-VPN, VSAT, VoIP services, IN Services etc. Presently it is one of the largest & leading public sector unit in India. … Read more
1. When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of –
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases
2. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used –
a) VTVM
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter
3. When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium
4. When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4
5. For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = n2/ND, the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes –
a) drop back to acceptor impurity states
b) drop to donor impurity states
c) Virtually leave the crystal
d) recombine with the electrons
6. The location of lighting arrestor is –
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
7. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
8. Telemetering is a method of
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None
9. When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be –
a) 2W
b) 3W
c) 4W
d) 1W
10. As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current
a) Becomes zero
b) Abruptly decreases
c) Abruptly increases
d) Remains constant
11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD
12. When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –
a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) Emitter follower
13. In a JFET gates are always
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) unbiased
d) none
14. The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of
a) insulated gate
b) electrons
c) channel
d) P-N junction
15. An SCR conducts appreciable current when
a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode
b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode
c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode
d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode
16. Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is –
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor
b) A direct band gap semiconductor
c) A wide band gap semiconductor
d) A narrow band gap semiconductor
17. An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V
18. When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is
a) 5W
b) 10 W
c) 15 W
d) 20 W
19. In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be
Ans.
20. Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22
c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21
d) Z12 = Z21
21. When the transmission parameters of the following network are A = C = 1, B = 2 and D = 3 then the value of Zin is –
Ans.
22. The value of G12 or v2/v1 for the circuit shown in the fig. is –
Ans.
23. The two port network of the fig. shown has open circuit impedance parameters given by matrix –
Ans.
24. In the circuit shown, the switch closes at t = 0. The voltage across 4mF capacitor in ideal condition changes to –
a) 0
b) 16V
c) 15V
d) 24V
25. While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are –
a) replaced by opens
b) replaced by ‘shorts’
c) treated in parallel with other voltage sources
d) converted into equivalent voltage sources
26. Maxwell’s loop current method of solving electrical networks
a) uses branch currents
b) utilizes kirchhoff’s voltage law
c) is confined to single-loop circuits
d) is a network reduction method
27. A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 – j 40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be
a)(30 + j40 ) ohms
b)( 30 – j40 ) ohms
c)(50 + j40 ) ohms
d)(50 – j40 ) ohms
28. For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will be
a) Elliptically polarized
b) Linearly polarized
c) Right circularly polarized
d) Left circularly polarized
29. A yagi antenna has a driven antenna-
a) Only
b) With a reflector
c) With one or more directors
d) With a reflector and one or more directors
30. The number of lobes on each side of a 3l resonant antenna is –
a) 3 b) 6 c) 2 d) 1
31. The electric field intensity of a Hertizian dipole at a remote point varies as
Ans. 1/r
32. Radiation resistance of a half wave folded dipole is
a) 72 W b) 144W c) 288 W d) 216W
33. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by –
a)100% b)150 % c)50% d)0%
34. On a clear sky day, the atmospheric radio noise is strongest –
a) During morning hours
b) Around mid-day
c) During nights
d) In the afternoon
35. TV broadcasting system in India is as per CCIR –
a) System B
b) System I
c) System M
d) System X
36. For the safety measurement of the internal resistance of a 25-0-25 mA meter, a laboratory multimeter whose sensitivity is equal to –
a) 1k ohm/volt can be used
b) 10 k ohm/volt can be used
c) 100 k ohm/volt can be used
d) 200 k ohm/volt can be used
37. In order to measure moisture in wood the most suitable method is –
a) Electrical conduction
b) Electrical – capacitive
c) Absorption of radiation
d) Equilirium- moisture vs humidity
38. The flow rate of elctrically conducting liquid without any suspended practicle cannot be measured by
a) turbine flow meters
b) electromagnetic flow meters
c) ultrasonic flow meters
d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters
39. The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is
a) an incremental encoder
b) an abosolute encoder
c) LVDT
d) a strain gauge
40. When variable reluctance type techometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be-
a) 4800 rpm b) 5400 rpm c) 6000 rpm d) 7200 rpm.
41. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to
a) 1.732 V b) 1.0 V c) 0.7746 V d) 0.5V
42. One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT is
a) strain gauge b) pitot tube c) Bourden tube d) Rotameter
43. It is required to measure temperature in the range of 1300 deg C to 1500 deg C The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be
a) chromel – constantan
b) Iron – constantan
c) chromel – alumel
d) platinum- rhodium
44. In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI is
a) f
b) 2 f
c) f/2
d) 3 f
45. Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit
a) Type A chopper
b) Type B chopper
c) Type C chopper
d) Type D chopper
46. Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated with-
a) peak point
b) valley point
c) any point between peak and valley
d) after the valley point
47. Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mA
a) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR
b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR
c) B may operate as a transistor
d) none of the above
48. In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal to-
a) zero
b) source voltage
c) source voltage minus the inductance drop
d) average value of the conducting phase voltages
49. Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconverters
a) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation
b) step up CC requires no forced commutation
c) load commutated CC works on line commutation
d) none of the above
50. In a 3 phase full converter if load current is I and ripple free, then average thyristor current is
Ans. b) 1/3(I)
51. In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it gives
a) Large voltage gain
b) Low output impedance
c) Large isolation between the input and the output
d) None of the above
52. Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation because-
a) it can withstand high temperature
b) ensures low PIV of the diodes
c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter
d) reduces ripple content
53. An amplifier of class A is that in which
a) Base is biased to cut-off
b) Ic flows most of the time
c) Ie flows all the time
d) Vc often raises to Vcc
54. A transistor is in active region when-
a) Ib = bIc b) Ic=bIb c) Ic=Ie d) Ic=Ib
55. For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it provides
a) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch
b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch
c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch
d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch
56. A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms. The hib for this transistor will be-
a) 100 W b) 99.01 W c) 5m W d) 101kW
57. An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of
a) 110 MHz b) 112 Hz c) 114 MHz d) 120 MHz
58. In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will become-
a) OV
b) VCC – IBRB
c) Equal to VCC
d) None of the above
59. See the circuit shown and choose the correct option
a) Only red will glow
b) Only green will glow
c) Both red and green will glow
d) Neither red nor green will glow
60. A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be
a) 0.1A b) 0.5A c) 1.0A d) 10.0A
61. A transistor is operated as a non-saturated switch to eliminate –
a) storage time
b) turn – off time
c) turn – on time
d) delay time
62. The output Y of the circuit in the given figure is –
a) (A + B)C + DE
b) AB + C(D + E)
c) (A + B)C + D + E
d) (AB + C) . DE
63. Rotors used in a two-phase ac servomotor is
a) solid iron motor
b) squirrel cage rotor
c) drag cup rotor
d) both b and c
64. Major advantage of TWT over a klystron lies in its
a) higher bandwidth
b) higher output
c) higher frequency
d) higher gain
65. The op-map circuit shown in the given figure can be used for
a) addition
b) subtraction
c) both addition and subtraction
d) multiplication
66. The Boolean expression for the shaded area in the given Venn diagram is
Ans. AB+BC+CA
67. A lag compensator is basically a
a) high pass filter
b) band pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) band elimination filter
68. Transfer function T (S) of the system in the given fig is-
Ans.
69. The overall transfer function for a unity feedback system is 4/(S2+4S+4)
Mark the correct statement regarding this system
1. Position error constant kp for the system is 4
2. The system type one.
3. The velocity error constant kv for the system is finite.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
70. If the rotor’s resistance and reactance are respectively R and X1 its length and diameter are L and D for two phase a) c) servomotor, then
Ans. X/R is small but L/D is large
71. In a PID controlles the transfer function G(s) is
Ans. K(1+(1/Tis)+Tds)
72. Transfer function 600/S(S+1)(S+15)(S+20) can be approximated by the system
Ans. 2/S(S+1)
73. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by
The high 3 db frequency of an amplifier will be approximately-
a) 5850 kHz b) 585 kHz c) 5850 Hz d) 585 Hz
74. An open loop transfer function is given by
K(S+3)/S(S+5) Its – loci will be
Ans.
75. The output signals amplitudes for 1’s and 0’s in an ADM transmission systems are
a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed
b) Fixed but the repetition rate is variable
c) Variable and the repetition rate is also variable
d) Variable but the repetition rate is fixed
76. Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart
a) Because of atmospheric attenuation
b) Because of Output tube power limitations
c) Because of the earth’s curvature
d) To ensure that the applied ac voltage is not excessive
77. The amplifier inserted at intervals to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission loss on the cable are called
a) line amplifier
b) equalizing amplifiers
c) compradors
d) repeaters
78. Diversity reception in used to
a) increase receiver sensitivity
b) improve receiver selectivity
c) overcome degrading effect of fading
d) overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning
79. Mark out transferred electron device in the following-
a) BARITT dived
b) IMPATT dived
c) Gunn divde
d) Step recovery diode
80. In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are
a) syne b) video c) sweep d) sound
81. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in the
a) mains transformer
b) vertical output stage
c) horizontal output stage
d) horizontal deflection oscillator
82. In antenna measurements using two aperture antennas of dimensions D1 and D2, minimum separation between the two should be (x is free space wavelength of radiation uses)
Ans. (D12+D22)/x
83. The frquency range for satellite broad casting is
a) 30 MHz – 300MHz
b) 30 MHz – 3 GHz
c) 3 GHz – 30 GHz
d) 30 GHz – 300 GHz
84. Iris is used to
a) Over come power loss
b) Over come bending effect
c) Over come mismatch error
d) Over come twist effect
85. In schotty barrier diode current flows because of
a) Majority carriers
b) Minority carriers
c) Majority and minority carriers
d) None
86. Which antennas are used in microwave communication
a) long wave antennas
b) Rhombic antennas
c) Parabolaidal antennas
d) All of above
87. Among translator & time of sight system capacity
a) Of translator is more
b) Of line of sight is more
c) Having equal capacity
d) No relation such as
88. No of T-state required for memory read or write operation-
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
89. In data transfer operation which flag get affected)-
a) 3140 flog b) carry flog c) sign flog d) none
90. In flowchart which figure represents process like subroutine-
Ans.
___________
| | | |
91. The storage and retrieval of data on stacks should follow sequence-
a) last in first out
b) first in first out
c) random in random out
d) none
92. While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearing
a) each instruction
b) after interval of two instruction
c) after a subroutine
d) at the end of program
93. In which error check technique of data communication 2’s complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with data
a) Even parity
b) odd parity
c) check scans
d) cyclic redundancy
94. Program execution hierarchy decides which operator
a) is most important
b) is used first
c) is fastest
d) operators on largest number
95. (375)base10 = (?)base8
a) 550 b) 557 c) 567 d) 577
96. To obtain 2048×8 memory using 128×8 memory chip how many IC required-
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
97. A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.
a) 10001 b) 01110 c)00111 d) 11100
98. Is the Universal logic gate
a) AND b) OR c) NAND d) X-OR
99. A monostable state in multivibrator means
a) which returns itself to its single stable state
b) the state used only once in circuit
c) the state of circuit can not get changed
d) the state of circuit always changing
100. For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred
a) T FF b) SR FF c) D FF d) JK FF
101. His handwriting was not —– so I could not read his note
a) attractive b) eligible c) clear d) legible
102. They started to —– people into the theatre only at six –
a) enter b) admit c) follow d) accept
103. I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word).
a) ending b) ordinary c) durable d) cheap
104. Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘evident’-
a) doubtful b) unimportant c) disagreed d) understood
105. I expressed by disagreement —— him on that issue
a) between b) with c) about d) for
106. ‘Sugarbowl’ of the world is
a) India b) Cuba c) Brazil d) USA
107. Palk strait separates
a) India and Srilanka
b) India and Burma
c) Britain and France
d) Malaysia and Sumatra
108. The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element are-
a) 1 b) 5 c) 2 d) 10
109. Tides in the sea are caused by
a) Effect of sun
b) Effect of moon
c) combined effect of moon and sun
d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces
110. The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is
a) 140 b) 200 c) 150 d) 100
111. Aswan Dam is located in
a) Egypt b) Libya c) Sudan d) Iran
112. Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of
a) Rajasthan b) Madhya Pradesh c)Uttar Pradesh d) Maharashtra
113. Dry ice is
a) Frozen carbon monoxide
b) Frozen carbon dioxide
c) Frozen ammonia
d) None of these
114. East flower river of India is
a) Cauvery b) sone c) Narmada d) Tapti
115. The total length of the great wall of China is –
a) 1,400 miles b) 1,500 miles c) 1,300 miles d) 1,400 miles
116. Deficiency of vitamin C may result in
a) beriberi b) night blindness c) dermatitis d) Scurvy
117. Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a period of
a) 11 months b) 2 years c) 18 months d) 15 months
118. Indian local time is based on
a) 800 E longitude
b) 82 1/2E longitude
c) 1100 E longitude
d) 250 E longitude
119. The two days Shiv Shena Mahashivir of 2002 started at Shirdi on
a) 9th April 2002 b) 10th April 2002 c) 8th April 2002 d) 11th April 2002
120. Which one is a good preservative of food?
a) Spirit b) Formaldehyde c) Sugar d) None of the above

Cognizant Placement Paper – 2012

With an advanced global delivery platform, Cognizant 2.0, we can share knowledge and efficiently manage projects across our far-flung enterprise. It allows us to provide you with the most cost-effective and comprehensive, end-to-end, advanced solutions. … Read more
As comprehensive socialism has diminished an opposing doctrine has emerged. This is privatisation. As a broad rule, privatisation ranks with socialism in irrelevance. There is a large area of economic activity in which the market is and should be unchallenged. Equally there is a large range of activities that increases with increasing economic activity where the services and functions of the state are either necessary or superior. Privatisation is not any better as a controlling guide to public action than is socialism. In both the cases the primary service of the doctrine is in providing escape from thought. In a good society there is in these matters one dominant rule: Decisions must be made on the social and economic merits of the case. This is not the age of doctrine. This is the age of practical judgement.
Q. No. 1: The author is
A :anti- socialism
B :anti-privatisation
C :calls for a balance between both
D :None of the above
Q. No. 2: The following statement is false
A : Socialism has disappeared
B :Privatization cant be used in all areas
C :Privatisation and socialism are opposing doctrines
D :All of the above.
Q. No.3 : The piece was written in the
A :1950’s
B :1960’s
C :1970’s
D :1990’s
Q. No.4 : In a good society, decisions are made based on
A : ad-hoc
B : on cash flows
C : on economic and social merits of cases
D : on economic value
Q. No. 5: In this passage the central idea is of the
A : Theory of ideologies
B : Relevance of socialism even today
C : forms of governments
D : Economic activities
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage
Work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion. The general recognition of this fact is shown in the proverbial phrase,’ It is the busiest man who has time to spare’. Thus, an elderly lady at leisure can spend the entire day writing a postcard to her niece. An hour will be spent in writing a postcard , another hunting for spectacles, half an hour to search for the address , an hour and a quarter in composition and twenty minutes in deciding whether or not to take an umbrella when going to the pillar box in the street. The total effort that could occupy a busy man for three minutes, all told may in this fashion leave another person completely exhausted after a day of doubt ,anxiety and toil.
Q. No. 6: What happens when the time to be spent on some work increases?
A : the work is done smoothly.
B : the work is done leisurely.
C : work consumes all the time.
D : The work needs additional time.
Q. No. 7: Explain the sentence : work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion’.
A : The more work there is to be done , the more time needed.
B : whatever time is available for a given amount of work, all of it will be used.
C : If you have more time you can do some work.
D : If you have some important work to do , you should always have some additional time.
Q. No. 8: Who is the person likely to take more time to do work.:
A : a busy man.
B : a man of leisure.
C : an elderly person.
D : an exhausted person
Q. No. 9: What is the total time spent by the elderly lady in writing a postcard?
A : Three minutes.
B : four hours and five minutes.
C : half day
D : the entire day.
Q. No. 10: What does the expression ‘pillar box’ stand for?
A : a box attached to the pillar.
B : a box in the pillar
C : box office
D : a pillar type postbox.
In the world today we make health and end in itself. We have forgotten that health is really means to enable a person to do his work and do it well. a lot of modern medicine and this includes many patients as well as many physicians pays very little attention to health but very much attention to those who imagine that they are ill. Our great concern with health is shown by the medical columns in newspapers. the health articles in popular magazines and the popularity of television programmes and all those books on medicine. We talk about health all the time. Yet for the most part the only result is more people with imaginary illness. The healthy man should not be wasting time talking about health: he should be using health for work. The work does the work that good health possible.
Q. No. 11 : Modern medicine is primarily concerned with
A : promotion of good health
B : people suffering from imaginary illness
C : people suffering from real illness
D : increased efficiency in work
Q. No. 12 : The passage suggests that
A : health is an end in itself
B : health is blessing
C : health is only means to an end
D : we should not talk about health
Q. No. 13 : Talking about the health all time makes people
A : always suffer from imaginary illness
B : sometimes suffer from imaginary illness
C : rarely suffer from imaginary illness
D : often suffer from imaginary illness
Q. No. 14 : The passage tells us
A : how medicine should be manufactured
B : what healthy man should or should not do
C : what television programmes should be about
D : how best to imagine illness
Q. No. 15 : A healthy man should be concerned with
A : his work which good health makes possible
B : looking after his health
C : his health which makes work possible
D : talking about health
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
According to Albert Einstein the non mathematician, is seized by a mysterious shuddering when he hears of ‘four-dimensional’ things, he is seized by a feeling, which is very similar to the thoughts awakened by the occult. And at the same time the statement that the world in which we live is a four-dimensional space – time continuum is quite a common place statement.
This might lead to an argument regarding the use of the term ”commonplace” by Einstein. Yet the difficulty lies more in the wording than the ideas. Einstein’s concept of the universe as a four-dimensional space-time continuum becomes plain and clear, when what he means by ”continuum” becomes clear. A continuum is something that is continuous, A ruler, for example, is a one-dimensional space continuum. Most rulers are divided into inches and frWASLions, scaled down to one-sixteenth of an inch.
Will it be possible to conceive a ruler, which is calibrated to a millionth or billionth of an inch. In theory there is no reason why the steps from point to point should not be even smaller. What distinguishes a continuum is the fWASL that the space between any two points can be sub-divided into an infinite number of smaller divisions.
A railroad track is a one-dimensional space continuum and on it the engineer of a train can describe his position at any time by citing a single co-ordinate point – i.e., a station or a milestone. A sea captain, however, has to worry about two dimensions. The surface of the sea is a two-dimensional continuum and the co-ordinate points by which sailor fixes his positions in his two dimensional continuum are latitude and longitude. An airplane pilot guides his plane through a three – dimensional continuum, hence he has to consider not only latitude and longitude, but also his height above the ground. The continuum of an airplane pilot constitutes space as we perceive it. In other words, the space of our world is a three-dimensional continuum.
Just indicating its position in space is not enough while describing any physical event, which involves motion. How position changes in time also needs to be mentioned. Thus to give an accurate picture of the operation of a New York – Chicago express, one must mention not only that it goes from New – York to Albany to Syracuse to Cleveland to Toledo to Chicago, but also the times at which it touches each of those points. This can be done either by means of a timetable or a visual chart. If the miles between New York and Chicago are plotted horizontally on a piece of ruled paper and the hours and minutes are plotted vertically, then a diagonal line properly drawn across the page illustrates the progress of the train in two – dimensional space – time continuum. This type of graphic representation is familiar to most newspaper readers; a stock market chart, for example, pictures financial events in a two – dimensional dollar – time continuum. Similarly for the best picturisation of the flight of an airplane from New York to Los Angeles a four – dimensional space – time continuum is essential. The latitude, longitude and altitude will only make sense to the traffic manager of the airline if the time co – ordinate is also mentioned. Therefore time is the fourth dimension. If a flight has to be looked at, perceived as a whole, it wouldn’t work if it is broken down into a series of disconnected take – offs, climbs, glides, and landing, it needs to be looked at and perceived as a continuous four – dimensional space – time continuum curve.
Q. No. 16 : The significant feature of a continuum, according to the passage, revolves around
A : The divisibility of the interval between any two points.
B : An ordinary ruler’s caliber for marking
C : Its lucid from providing comprehensibility to the non – scientists as well
D : Its variety of co – ordinates.
Q. No. 17 : The purpose of this passage is to highlight the point that
A : Plots and sea captains have something in common
B : Stock market charts may be helpful to physicists
C : The fourth dimension is time.
D : Non – mathematician’s are often afraid of the commonplace
Q. No. 18 : According to the passage, an airlines traffic manager depends upon all of the following EXCEPT
A : latitude
B : altitude
C : the time co -ordinate
D : the continuous curve in co four
Q. No. 19 : According to Albert Einstein which type of people are seized by a mysterious shuddering when he hears of ‘four-dimensional’ things?
A : Doctors
B : Non Mathematicians
C : Artists
D : None of the above
Q. No. 20 : According to the author if on wishes portray a physical event in which motion plays a role – one has to
A : Make use of a time-table
B : Indicate how position changes in time
C : Be conversant with the scientist’s theories
D : Describe it graphically
The following five questions are based on the passage given below:-
How strange time is and how queer we are! Time has really changed and it has changed us too. It walked one step forward, unveiled its grace, alarmed us and hen elated us.
Yesterday we complained about time and trembled at its terrors. But today we have learned to love it and revere it, for now we understand its intents, its natural disposition, its secrets and its mysteries.
Yesterday we were a toy in the hands of Destiny. But today Destiny has awakened from her intoxication to play and laugh and walk with us. We do not follow her but she follows us.
Q. No. 21 : The author is talking about
A : Time and how it has changed
B : Our queerness
C : Our fright
D : None of the above.
Q. No. 22 : The author tries to say that along with time
A : We have become more frightened
B : We have changed too
C : We also walk with it
D : None of the above
Q. No. 23 : When the author says that “……. Destiny follows us”, he means
A : Destiny can take walks
B : Destiny can play like us
C : Destiny can sleep and awake like us
D : We have conquered destiny
Q. No. 24 : The author throughout the passage sounds
A : Sad
B : Pessimistic
C : Optimistic
D : Angry
Q. No. 25 : The passage has probably been written by a
A : Novelist
B : Philosopher or a poet
C : Botanist
D : Historian
Answer 1 to 25.

BEL Placement Paper – Technical Electronics V

Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) was set up at Bangalore, India, by the Government of India under the Ministry of Defence in 1954 to meet the specialised electronic needs of the Indian defence services. Over the years, it has grown into a multi-product, multi-technology, multi-unit company serving the needs of customers in diverse fields in India and abroad . BEL is among an elite group of public sector undertakings which have been conferred the Navratna status by the Government of India. … Read more

1. VSWR on a transmission line is always
1. Equal to 1
2. Equal to 0
3. Less than 1
4. Greater than 1
2. In a amplitude modulated wave, the value of Vmax is 10V and Vmin is 5V. The % modulation in this case is:
1. 2% b. 33.3% c. 50% d. 100%
3. The signal to noise ratio at the input of an amplifier can be improved:
1. By decrease the source impedance or resistance
2. By increasing the source impedance
3. By matching the source impedance with the input impedance of the amplifier
4. None of these
4. If the bandwidth of an amplifier is reduced, the thermal noise in the amplifier will:
1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Not to be affected at all
4. Become random in nature
5. For the distortion to be minimum in a transmission line at audio frequencies, the condition is
1. L = CR / G
2. L = GR / C
3. LG = R
4. LR = G
6. When electromagnetic waves are propagated in a waveguide
1. They travel along the broader walls of the waveguide
2. They travel through the dielectric without touching the wall
3. They are reflected from the walls but they do not travel along them
4. None of these
7. Communication between satellite and ground station is through
1. Tropospheric scatter
2. Ground wave
3. Sky wave
4. Line of sight propagation
8. A mast antenna is used mainly for
1. UHF
2. Short wave
3. Medium wave
4. VHF
9. A crystal which has a sensitivity of -55 dBm with 1 MHz BW amplifier will have a sensitivity at 4 MHz BW amplifier equal to:
1. -55 dBm b. -58 dBm c. -52 dBm d. -60 dBm
10. Electromagnetic waves are refracted when they
1. Pass into a medium of different dielectric constant
2. Are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
3. Encounter a perfectly conducting surface
4. Pass through a small slot in a conducting medium
11. An aerial is fed from an amplitude modulation amplifier. Both the modulating voltage and modulated voltage are sinusoidal. The aerial current (rms) before modulation is 5 A and it increases to 5.8A after modulation. The percentage of modulation index will be
1. 88% b. 80% c. 81.21% d. 83.14%
12. In a frequency demodulation, Foster-Seeley discriminator uses a
1. Single tuned circuit
2. Double tuned circuit in which both the primary and secondary are tuned to the same frequency
3. Double tuned circuit in which both the primary and secondary are tuned to to different frequencies
4. Combination of two transistors in push-pull operation
13. The wavelength of an electromagnetic wave in wave guide
1. Is directly proportional to the phase velocity
2. Is inversely proportional to the phase velocity
3. Is greater than that in free space
4. Depends only on the wave guide dimensions and the free space wavelength
14. The scale used for moving coil meter is
1. Non-linear scale
2. Linear scale
3. A square scale
4. A log scale
15. To double the circuit range of a 50 mA, 2000W meter movement, the shunt resistance requires is
1. 40W b. 50W c. 2000W d. 25KW
16. A voltmeter utilizes a 20 mA meter movement. The sensitivity of the voltmeter is
1. 50 meg ohms per volt
2. 20 K ohms per volt
3. 50 kilo ohms per volt
4. 20 meg ohms per volt
17. A transformer, with a 20 : 1 voltage step-down ratio has 6V across 0.6 ohm in the secondary, then Is and Ip given by
1. 10A, 5A
2. 5A, 10A
3. 10A, 0.5A
4. 1A, 0.5A
18. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a resistor is
1. Negative
2. Positive
3. Zero
4. Infinity
19. To prevent loading of the circuit under test, the input impedance of the oscilloscope
1. Be low
2. Be high
3. Capacitive
4. Inductive
20. If the retrace is visible on the CRT display, then the trouble may be that
1. The fly back time of the time base saw tooth wave is not zero
2. The blanking control is not set properly
3. There is loss of SYNC signal
4. The intensity is too high
21. The lissajous pattern on CRO for two sinusoidal of frequency ratio 1 : 2 differing in phase by 90 degrees, is
1. A straight line
2. A circle
3. An ellipse
4. An eight-shaped
22. When an electron starts from rest under the influence of electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other, the path traversed by it will be
1. Ellipse
2. A parabola
3. Straight line
4. A cycloid
23. Frequency multipliers are usually
1. Class A amplifiers
2. Class B amplifiers
3. Class C amplifiers
4. Class AB amplifiers
24. The feedback network of a phase shift oscillator is usually consists of
1. RC circuit
2. RL circuit
3. LC circuit
4. C alone
25. Common base amplifier is most suitable for use in
1. Very high frequency circuits
2. Low frequency circuits
3. Medium frequency circuits
4. Low current circuits
26. If two amplifiers having identical bandwidth are cascaded, then the bandwidth of the resulting amplifier will be
1. Less than that of each stage
2. Greater than that of each stage
3. Same as that of each stage
4. Double of each stage
27. Which one of the following amplifier has largest bandwidth
1. RC coupled amplifier
2. Difference amplifier
3. Transformer coupled amplifier
4. Direct coupled amplifier
28. In an amplifier, the emitter resistance by passed by a capacitor
1. Reduces the voltage gain
2. Increases the voltage gain
3. Causes thermal run away
4. None of these
29. The term free running is usually associated with
1. Bistable multivibrator
2. Astable multivibrator
3. Monostable multivibrator
4. None of these
30. The signal fed at the input of an ideal push-pull amplifier has frequency components 150Hz’ 300Hz, 450Hz and 600Hz. The output signal will contain
1. Only 150 Hz frequency component
2. Only 150 Hz and 450 Hz frequency component
3. Only 300 Hz and 600 Hz frequency components
4. All the frequency components
31. For which of the following configuration [s] does the input resistance of the amplifier depend strongly on the load resistance
1. CE b.CC c. CB d. CE and CB
32. An important advantage of the RC coupling scheme is
1. Economy
2. Excellent frequency reponse
3. High efficiency
4. Good impedance matching
33. The AC input to transistor oscillator is obtained from
1. The previous stage
2. A signal generator
3. DC power source
4. Its own internal circuit
34. The low frequency cut-off in an amplifier is due to
1. Only coupling capacitor
2. Only bypass capacitor
3. Both coupling and bypass capacitors
4. The internal transistor junction capacitances
35. In a half-wave rectifier the peak value of AC voltage across the secondary of the transformer is 20/2 V. If no filter circuit is used, the maximum DC voltage across the load will be
1. 28.28V b. 20V c. 14.14V d. None of these
36. Heat sinks ate used in a transistor working as power amplifier so as to
1. Increase the output power
2. Reduce the heat losses in toe transistors
3. Increase the voltage gain of the amplifier
4. Increase the collector dissipation rating of the transistors
37. In a power amplifier, the output power is proportional to
1. Vi b. Vi2 c. Vi3 d. Ã- Vi
38. At half power frequencies the reduction in voltage gain of an amplifier equals
1. 6 dB b. 2 dB c. 3 dB d. 4 dB
39. the frequency of the ripple voltage at the output of a bridge rectifier operating from a 50 Hz supply is
1. 25Hz b. 50 Hz c. 100 Hz d. 200 Hz
40. Darlington pair is used for
1. High current gain
2. High power gain
3. High frequency operation
4. Low distortion
41. The function of a bleeder resistor in a power supply is
1. Same as that of a load resistor
2. To ensure a minimum current drain in the circuit
3. To increase the output current
4. To increase the output DC voltage
42. A JFET has a potential divider bias arrangement. By mistake the resistor between the gap and the power supply terminal is removed. The JFET will
1. Continue to work as an amplifier
2. Have a forward bias gate with respect to source
3. Not work as an amplifier but will work as a switch
4. Immediately burn out
43. The ripple factor of half-wave rectifier is
1. 0.482 b. 1.11 c. 1.21 d. 1.57
44. In the high frequency region of an RC coupled amplifier the circuit behave like a
1. Differentiator
2. A current amplifier
3. Low pass filter
4. High pass filter
45. Astable multivibrator can be used as
1. Squaring circuit
2. Comparator circuit
3. Voltage to frequency converter
4. Frequency of voltage converter
46. If the gain of the amplifier as A and the voltage feed back is fraction B of the amplifier output voltage, the condition for maintenance of oscillation is
1. AB = 1 180o
2. AB = infinity
3. AB = 1 0o
4. AB 47. Nominal gain of an amplifier is 240. The noise level in the output without feed back is 300 mV. If a feed back Beta = 1/ 60 used, the noise level in the output will be
1. 1.66 mV b. 2.4mV c. 4mV d. 20mV
48. A zener diode is primarily used for
1. Rectification
2. Producing constant current
3. Producing constant voltage
4. Reverse bias
49. Cross over distortion is eliminated in a push-pull amplifier by
1. Using a transformer with a large step-up ratio
2. Using a transformer with a large step-down ratio
3. Providing a small forward bias to the transistors
4. Supplying both transistors with inphase signals
50. When a PNP transistor is saturated
1. Its base, emitter, and collector are all essentially at the same potential
2. Its emitter is at higher potential than the collector
3. Its collector is at higher potential than both base & emitter
4. None
51. For a RC high pass circuit
1. RC 2. RC > > t
3. RC = t
4. None
52. An inverter is an equipment for transforming
1. AC to DC
2. AC to AC
3. DC to DC
4. DC to AC
53. Suppose you wish to amplify the potential difference between two points in a circuit when neither of these points is grounded. Which one the following will you prefer?
1. RC coupled amplifier
2. Transformer coupled amplifier
3. Difference amplifier
4. Direct coupled amplifier
54. In an emitter follower, the output voltage is
1. 180o out of phase from the input voltage
2. 90o out of phase from the input voltage
3. in phase with the input voltage
4. None
55. A silicon controlled rectifier can be considered to be:
1. Two pnp transistor connected back to back
2. Two npn transistor connected back to back
3. One npn and one pnp transistor connected back to back
4. Two zener diodes connected back to back
56. A rf signal contains three frequency components 870 KHz, 875 KHz 880 KHz. This signal needs to be amplified. The amplifier used should be
1. Audio frequency amplifier
2. Wide band amplifier
3. Push pull amplifier
4. None
57. In the emitter follower circuit
1. The output current and voltage are inphase with the input current and voltage respectively
2. The input and output impedances are equal
3. There is current series negative feedback
4. The output impedance is much higher than the input impedance
58. The frequency response of a system is the range of frequencies between the upper and lower
1. 1 dB points
2. 6 dB points
3. 3 dB points
4. None
59. In a class C amplifier the output current is zero for
1. Half cycle
2. Full cycle
3. Less than half cycle
4. More than half cycle
60. When RL [load resistance] equals the internal resistance of a generator, which of the following is maximum:
1. Power in RL
2. Current through RL
3. Voltage across RL
4. Efficiency of the circuit
61. negative feedback in an amplifier results in:
1. increased gain and increased bandwidth
2. increased gain and reduced bandwidth
3. reduced gain and increased bandwidth
4. reduced gain and reduced bandwidth
62. A class B push-pull amplifier suffers from
1. Cross-over distortion
2. Excessive harmonic distortion
3. Inter modulation distortion
4. None
63. An oscillator of the LC type that has split capacitor in the tank circuit is
1. Hartely oscillator
2. Wein bridge oscillator
3. Colpitts oscillator
4. None
64. Clamping circuits are also known as
1. AC restorer
2. DC restorer
3. Voltage to frequency converter
4. None
65. Which of the following has the greater mobility
1. Positive ion
2. Negative ion
3. Electrons
4. Holes
66. An N type semiconductor as a whole is
1. Positively charged
2. Electrically neutral
3. Negatively charged
4. None
67. In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap is of the order
1. 1 ev b. 6 ev c. 7 ev d. 0.1 ev
68. In LED, light is emitted because
1. Recombination of charges take place
2. We make the light fall on LED
3. Diode emits light when heated
4. None
69. UJT is also called
1. A voltage controlled device
2. A current controlled device
3. A relaxation oscillator
4. None
70. The transistor configuration which provides higher output impedance is
1. CC b. CB c. CE d. None
71. Tunnel diodes are fabricated from
1. Silicon
2. Germanium
3. Either silicon or germanium
4. Either germanium or gallium
72. N channel FETs are superior to P channel FETs because
1. They have a higher input impedance
2. They have a high switching time
3. They consume less power
4. Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes
73. Diac is a solid state device which works as a
1. 2 terminal bidirectional switch
2. 2 terminal unilateral switch
3. 3 terminal bidirectional switch
4. None
74. Triac is a solid device which works as a
1. 2 terminal bidirectional switch
2. 3 terminal bidirectional switch
3. 4 terminal bidirectional switch
4. 2 terminal unilateral switch
75. Compared to a CB amplifier, a CE amplifier has
1. Lower input resistance
2. Higher output resistance
3. Lower current amplification
4. Higher current amplification
76. The input and output signals of a common emitter amplifier are:
1. Always equal
2. Out of phase
3. In phase
4. Always negative
77. The operation of a JEET involves
1. A flow of minority carriers
2. A flow of majority carriers
3. Recombination
4. Negative resistance
78. Solar cell is an example of a
1. Photo conductive device
2. Photo emissive device
3. Photo voltage device
4. None
79. Bretters and bolometers are used in the measurement of
1. Microwave power
2. VSWR
3. Transmission losses
4. None
80. A klystron operates on the principle of
1. Velocity modulation
2. Amplitude modulation
3. Pulse modulation
4. Frequency modulation
81. The unit of the amplification factor of a triode is
1. Decibels
2. Volt
3. Neper
4. None
82. A change in base current from 30 to 40 mA changes the collector current from 500 to 900 mA. The B factor for this power transistor equals
1. 900 b. 500 c. 3 d. 40
83. The field effect transistor can be used as
1. Variable capacitance
2. A constant voltage source
3. A variable resistance
4. A constant current source
84. Why NPN transistor are preferred over PNP transistor
1. NPN transistor have low heat dissipation
2. NPN transistor can handle large power
3. NPN transistor are cheap and easily available
4. None
85. The germanium transistors are seldom used above
1. 60oC b. 75oC c. 125oC d. 175oC
86. In a FET the drain voltage above which there is no increase in the drain current is called
1. Pick off voltage
2. Critical voltage
3. Pinch off voltage
4. Break down voltage
87. A reflex klystron has
1. Only one cavity working both as the buncher & the catcher
2. Two cavities one for buncher and one for the catcher
3. Three cavities, two for buncher and one for catcher
4. No cavity at all
88. Bipolar junction transistors are seldom used as switching devices because
1. BJTs are not economical fro using as switching devices
2. They can handle only high voltage but not high currents
3. They need separate circuits when used as switching device
4. Of slow response and inability to withstand high voltage
89. The voltage at which the electron flow starts from the anode is called
1. Break down voltage
2. Peak inverse voltage
3. Peak voltage
4. Pinch off voltage
90. The heater filament of a vacuum tube is generally supplied with AC voltage (and not DC voltage) for heating because
1. It results in a uniform heating of filament so that the electron emission also uniform
2. It is very easy to obtain AC voltage from AC power mains
3. The DC voltage that would be required for heating has much greater magnitude than the AC voltage
4. When DC is used for heating, a different type of filament is required which very expensive
91. The dopant used for P type semiconductor is
1. Phosphorous
2. Boron
3. Carbon
4. Sodium
92. An example of negative resistance characteristic device
1. BJT b. MOSFET c. UJT d. PINdiode
93. The average DC voltage obtained from a bridge rectifier with a sine wave input V sin wt is
1. V / 2 b. 2V c. 4V d. V
94. The maximum theoretical efficiency of a class B amplifier is
1. About 20%
2. About 50%
3. About 75%
4. 100%
95. A cascade amplifier is
1. A CE amplifier followed by CC amplifier
2. A CE amplifier followed by CB amplifier
3. A CC amplifier followed by CB amplifier
4. A CB amplifier followed by CE amplifier
96. Toggle switches can be debounced using
1. Astable multivibrator
2. Shift register
3. RS flip flop
4. None
97. A band pass filter has a centre frequency at 5 KHz. The 3 dB cut off frequencies are 4.5 KHz and 5.5 KHz. The Q factor of the filter is
1. 5 b. 0.2 c. 5.2 d. 0.45
98. The domestic buzzer makes use of
1. Hall effect
2. Tunneling effect
3. Natural resonance
4. Piezoelectric effect
99. The device which uses avalanche breakdown is
1. PIN diode
2. Zener diode
3. Impart diode
4. GUNN diode
100. The correct relation between Alpha and Beta of a transistor is
1. a / b-1 b.b=a-1 c. b = a / 1-a d. a = b + 1/ b

Answer

1. d

2. b

3. a

4. b

5. a

6. b

7. d

8. c

9. c

10. a

11. d

12. c

13. c

14. b

15. c

16. c

17. c

18. a

19. b

20. d

21. d

22. d

23. c

24. a

25. a

26. b

27. d

28. d

29. b

30. d

31. b

32. a

33. d

34. c

35. d

36. d

37. b

38. a

39. c

40. a

41. b

42. c

43. c

44. c

45. c

46. c

47. d

48. c

49. c

50. a

51. a

52. d

53. c

54. c

55. c

56. d

57. c

58. c

59. c

60. a

61. c

62. a

63. c

64. b

65. c

66. b

67. a

68. a

69. a

70. b

71. d

72. d

73. a

74. b

75. d

76. b

77. b

78. c

79. a

80. a

81. d

82. d

83. c

84. d

85. b

86. c

87. a

88. d

89. b

90. b

91. b

92. c

93. d

94. b

95. b

96. c

97. a

98. d

99. c

100.c

BHEL PLACEMENT PAPER – Feb 2007

BHEL is the largest engineering and manufacturing enterprise in India in the energy-related/infrastructure sector, today. BHEL was established more than 40 years ago, ushering in the indigenous Heavy Electrical Equipment industry in India – a dream that has been more than realized with a well-recognized track record of performance. The company has been earning profits continuously since 1971-72 and paying dividends since 1976-77. … Read more
1. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to. = 1.41
2. A perfect gas at 270C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is = 3270C
3. An engine operates between temperature of 9000K and T2 and another engine between T2 and 8000K. For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be. = 6500K
4. Internal energy of a substance depends on = Temperature
5. Work done in compressing 1kg of gas adiabatically from p1,V1,T1 to p2, V2, T2 is equal to = Cv(T2-T1)
6. The unit of entropy is = J/kg 0K
7. Indicated power of a 4-stroke engine is equal to = pLAN/2
8. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine :
a) 2 stroke petrol engine b) 4 stroke petrol engine c) Diesel engine d) steam engine e) Gas turbine. = (d)
9. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the:
a) exhaust will be smoky b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves c) exhaust temperature will be high d) engine starts overheating e) all of the above. = (e)
10. The spark plug gap is normally maintained at: = 0.45 to 0.6mm
11. A distributor in spark ignition engines performs the function of : = Providing the correct firing order in engine
12. Which of the following does not relate to C.I. engine:: a) fuel pump b) fuel injector c) governor d) carburetor e) flywheel = (d)
13. Air fuel ratio in a jet engine is = 60:1
14. What is the value of Prandtl No.?
15. In domestic refrigerator, the tubes at the back of the refrigerator are: a) evaporator b) condenser c) capillary tubes d)
16. Which refrigerants has the highest critical point temperature. = Freon-11
17. Wet bulb temperature is. = indication of amount of moisture in air
18. On psychometric chart, dry bulb temperature lines are. = Vertical
19. Surface tension has the units. = newtons/m
20. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the. = Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
21. A pressure of 25m of head of water is equal to. =245kN/m2
22. For a submerged body to be in stable equilibrium, the center of gravity should be. =Below the center of buoyancy.
23. The actual velocity at vena contracta for flow through an orifice from a reservoir of height H=?. =Cvv2gH
24. A body weighing 2kg in air weights 2.5kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is. = 6
25. In a free vortex motion: = each particle moves in a circular path with a speed varying inversely as the distance from the center.
26. A centrifugal pump has speed-1000rpm, Flow-1200l.p.m, Head-20m, Power-5H.P. If its speed is increased to 1500rpm, new flow will be.: = 1800l.p.m
27. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is: = the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and with the wicket gates wide open.
28. 10m of water column is equal to = 100kN/m2
29. M.I. of a circular area about an axis perpendicular to the area is: = pr4/2
30. A projectile is fired at an angle ? to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when ? is . =450
31. An elevator weighing 1000kg attains an upward velocity of 4m/sec in two seconds with uniform acceleration. The tension in the supporting cables will be = 1200kg.
32. A 13m ladder is placed against a smooth vertical wall with its lower end 5m from the wall. What should be the co-efficient of friction between ladder and floor so that it remains in equilibrium. = 0.21
33. A car is moving with a velocity of 60km/hr and possesses energy of 5×105 joules. The mass of the car will be. =3000kg.
34. If l is the span of a light suspension bridge whose each cable carries total weight (w) and the central diop is y, the horizontal pull at each support is: = wl/y OR
35. A beam of length l, having uniform load w kg/unit length is supported freely at the ends. The moments at mid span will be: = wl2/8.
36. A boiler shell 200cm dia and plate thickness 1.5cm is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5MN/m2, then the hoop stress will be. = 100N/m2
37. 100KW is to be transmitted by each of two separate shafts. A is turning at 250rpm and B at 300rpm. Which shaft must have greater diameter.: = B
38. Two identical leaf springs of spring constant k are arranged like cantilevers in parallel and attached at free end by a spring of spring constant k. The equivalent spring constant of combination is; = 1.5k.
39. Automobile steering gear is an example of: = lower pair.
40. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is. = Universal coupling.
41. To transmit power from one rotation shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use: = Spiral gear.
42. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and another gear having 25 teeth revolves around it, the centre lines of both gears being joined by an arm. How many revolutions will be made by gear of 25 teeth for one revolution of arm. = 5 rev.
43. The secondary critical speed of a shaft occurs at: = twice the speed of primary critical speed.
44. Brittle coating technique is used for: = experimental stress analysis.
45. Factor of safety is the ratio of: = yield stress/working stress.
46. Type of gear used for non-intersection perpendicular shafts: = Hypoid gears.
47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding: = Chromium & Nickel
48. The product of Cupola is called: = cast iron
49. Brinell tester uses a hardness steel ball of size: = 10mm
50. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by: = EDM
51. What kind of abrasive cut off wheel should be used to cut concrete, stone and masonry? =Diamond grit.
52. In break-even analysis, total cost consists of: = Fixed cost + Variable cost.
53. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is : =deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
54. PERT is: = event oriented technique
55. Bar charts are suitable for: = minor works.
56. on a PERT/CPM chart represents: = a significant event representing some mile-stone
57. Electron volt is the unit of : = Energy.
58. Seamless tubes are made by?
59. Reheating in gas turbine results in: = increase of work ratio and decrease of thermal efficiency.
60. Why DC current is not used in transformer?
61. What is the purpose of draft tube in hydraulic turbines: = to convert the kinetic energy into pressure energy.
62. A mass of 100kg is falling from a height of 1m and penetrates the sand to 1m. what is the resistance force of the sand?
63. Two cars travel in the same direction at 40km/hr at a regular distance. A car comes in the opposite direction at 60km/hr. It meets each car in a gap of 8 seconds. What is the distance between the two cars?

BHEL Placement Paper – 2006

BHEL is the largest engineering and manufacturing enterprise in India in the energy-related/infrastructure sector, today. BHEL was established more than 40 years ago, ushering in the indigenous Heavy Electrical Equipment industry in India – a dream that has been more than realized with a well-recognized track record of performance. The company has been earning profits continuously since 1971-72 and paying dividends since 1976-77. … Read more
1.Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
1. (5 ” 4e-2+) u(t)
2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
2.Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
3. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below. Codes
a.) 1 and 4
b.) 2 and 3
c.) 1 and 3
d.) 2 and 4
4.For the signal g (t) ” 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at) The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
a.) 150 samples per second
b.) 200 samples per second
c.) 300 samples per second
d.) 350 samples per second
5.In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between ” MHz.
a.) 34 and 106
b.) 52. And 88
c.) 106 and 142
d.) 34 and 142
6.Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is “
a.) Pulse radar
b.) Tracking radar
c.) MTI radar
d.) Mono pulse radar
7.The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because “
a.) The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing
8.Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
a.) Compression of the modulating signal
b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.
9.In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
a.) reflection from the ionosphere
b.) line of sight mode
c) reflection from the ground
d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.
10.Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
a.) increase the gain of the system
b). increase the bandwidth of the system
c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.
11.In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.
12.When a (75 ” j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
a.) A short ” circuited stub at the load
b.)An inductance at the load
c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
d.)none of the above
13.As compared to analog multimeters, digital Multimeters’s are “
a.) less accurate
b.) more accurate
c.) equally accurate
d.) none.
14.When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used “
a.) VTVM
b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c.) Moving iron voltmeter
d.) Digital multimeter
15.Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
a.) It is biased almost to saturation
b.)Its quiescent current is low
c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
d.)It is biased well below cut off
16.The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
a.) Direct coupling
b.)Impedance coupling
c.) R C coupling
d.)Transformer coupling
17.A superconductor is a “
a.) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b.) A conductor having zero resistance
c.) A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
d.) A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
18.When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be “
a) 8.05 pF
b) 10.05pF
c.) 16.01pF
d.) 20.01pF
19.The Q of a radio coil “
a.) is independent of frequency
b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency
20.When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is “
a.) 0.5
b.) 1.5
c.) 2.5
d.) 1.75
21.The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is “
a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)
22.Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of “
a.) -2000C to 5000C
b.) 00C to 5000C
c.) 5000C to 12000C
d.) 12000C to 25000C
23.RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in “
a.) Class ‘A’
b.) Class ‘b’
c.) Class ‘C’
d.) None
24.The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be “
a.) High positive
b.) High negative
c.) Low positive
d.) Zero

BEL Placement Paper – Technical-Electronics

Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) was set up at Bangalore, India, by the Government of India under the Ministry of Defence in 1954 to meet the specialised electronic needs of the Indian defence services. Over the years, it has grown into a multi-product, multi-technology, multi-unit company serving the needs of customers in diverse fields in India and abroad . BEL is among an elite group of public sector undertakings which have been conferred the Navratna status by the Government of India. … Read more

Paper: BEL Placement Paper (Technical-Electronics Ist)

1. The gray code equivalent of binary 1100 is

a. 1011 b. 1101 c. 1010 d. 1100

2. A Multiplexer has

a. Multiple inputs and single output

b. Single input and Multiple outputs

c. Multiple inputs and Multiple outputs

d. Multiple inputs for Storage of Data

3. A binary half adder

a. Adds two binary digits and produces their sum and carry

b. Adds half the sum to the carry

c. Adds two binary digits and carry from previous addition

d. Adds two binary digits at half the speed

4. An index register in a computer is for

a. Arithmetic and logic functions

b. Storage of results

c. Modifying the address

d. Counting the no of programmes

5. An example of volatile memory is

a. RAM b. ROM c. EPROM d. Magnetic tape

6. Barrier voltage in a P-N junction is caused by

a. Thermally generated electrons and holes

b. Diffusion of majority carriers across the junction

c. Migration of minority carriers across the junction

d. Flow of drift current

7. The temperature coefficient of an intrinsic semiconductor is

a. Positive b. Negative c. Zero d. Like metals

8. A silicon transistor has a leakage current 1cbo = 1 ma. If the temp. rises by 50o C the leakage current will be

a. 30 ma b. 32ma c. 50ma d. no change

9. The noise figure of an ideal amplifier in decibel is

a. 0.5 b. 0 c. 1 d. 10

10. The rise time of an amplifier is 200 nsec. Its bandwidth is

a. 70MHz b. 140MHz c. 100MHz d. 1.75Mhz

11. MOSFET operates in

a. Depletion mode only

b. Enhancement mode only

c. Depletion and enhancement mode

d. None of these of the above

12. A device which behaves like SCRs is

a. UJT b. Triac c. MOSFET d. SRD

13. A plate modulated class C RF amplifier produces 100 KW of radiated power at 100 % modulation. The modulating audio amplifier supplies approximately

a. 25KW b. 33KW c. 50KW d. 66KW

14. A 100 MHz FM carrier, modulated by a 5 KHz sine wave deviates by 50 KHz

If the frequency of the modulating sine wave is doubled, the deviation will

a. Double b. Half c. Quadruple d. Have no change

15. Noise generated by a resistor is dependent on

a. Its Value

b. Its temperature

c. Both value and temp

d. None of these

16. A 32 channel 8 bit PCM system samples at 8 KHz rate. The overall bit rate in kilobits per second will be

a. 2048 b. 2000 c. 1920 d. 64

17. Stub matching eliminates standing wave on

a. Load side of the stub

b. Source side of the stub

c. Both sides

d. On the stub

18. A half wave folded dipole has a radiation resistance of

a. 72 W b.50W c. 144W d. 288W

19. Top loading is used in antennas for

a. Decrease in impedance

b. Increase in bandwidth

c. Increase in effective height

d. Decease the height

20. The term critical frequency in Ionospheric propagation is

a. Lowest frequency reflected by Ionosphere

b. Highest frequency reflected by the Ionosphere at vertical incidence

c. Lowest frequency reflected by the Ionosphere at vertical incidence

d. Lowest communication frequency possible

21. The cathode ray oscilloscope can be used to measure

a. Frequency b. Time interval c. Voltage d. All the above

22. A wein bridge is used for measurement of

a. Resistance b. Capacitance c. Inductance d. Audio frequency

23. The frame rate per second used in India TV is

a. 60 b. 50 c. 25 d. 30

24. VHF signals are propagated

a. Via the ionosphere

b. Along the ground

c. Through the troposphere

d. By reflection in ionosphere

25. The impedance of a 3 element yagi antenna is around

a. 75W b. 300W c. 50W d. 100W

26. A PIN diode is microwave

a. Oscillator b. Mixer c. Detector d. Switch

27. A transmission line of VSWR 2 has a reflection coefficient

a. 0.25 b. 0.5 c. 75 d. 0

28. Microwave repeaters are typically

a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100 Kms apart

29. To overcome fading in a ship-to-ship communication system we can efficiently use

a. Broadband Antenna

b. Directional Antenna

c. Space Diversity

d. Frequency Diversity

30. Frequency in the UHF range is propagate by waves of

a. Ground b. sky c. Space d. Surface

31. A duplexer is used to

a. Receive two signals in one antenna

b. Prevent interference between two antenna

c. Mix two signals to the same antenna

d. Allow one antenna for both transmission and reception

32. Strapping is used in a magnetron to

a. Prevent mode jumping

b. Reduce frequency drift

c. Ensure proper bunching

d. Dissipate heat

33. A rectangular waveguide behaves like a filter of

a. Band pass b. High pass c. Low pass d. Band stop

34. The signal propagation time in milliseconds for a geosynchronous satellite is

a. 540 b. 270 c. 135 d. 100

35. The silicon solar cell is a

a. Photo conductive

b. Photo emissive

c. Photo voltaic

d. Photo resistive

36. For the national TV and ratio network, INSAT-IB uses

a. 400MHz b. 2.5GHz c. 2.5 and 5GHz d. 4 and 6 GHz

37. A typical fibre-optic detector is

a. Step recovery diode

b. Light emitting diode

c. Avalanche photo diode

d. Field effect transistor

38. A modem is a device used for

a. Digitizing voice data

b. Transmission of data on lines

c. Modulating and demodulating signals sent on a line

d. Suppressing noise interference

39. The most effective anti-jamming technique is

a. Frequency hopping

b. Spread Spectrum

c. Frequency synthesis

d. Burst transmission

40. Mono-mode is a term used in

a. Fibre-optics

b. Radar

c. Satellite communication

d. Magnetics

41. Monopulse technique is used in

a. Radar

b. Radio relay

c. Data communication

d. Fibre-optics

42. HDLC is a term for

a. Data communication protocol

b. Synchronizing pulses

c. Gain control in receivers

d. Error checking

43. A gateway

a. Is a place where radars are connected

b. Permits dissimilar networks to communicate

c. Bifurcates the RF path of a transmitter

d. Is a feeder cable

44. Ethernet is a name of

a. Medium of computer communication

b. Network for computer communication

c. Procedures for computer communication network

d. Software for computer communication

45. If several stations in a network want to use a single channel without interfering with one another, the technique used is called

a. Carrier sense

b. Phantom-freeze

c. Packet switching

d. Multiplexing

46. In a monolithic IC, resistors are formed from

a. Ceramic materials

b. Copper

c. P-type semiconductor

d. Aluminium deposition

47. ICs made by sputtering of materials on a ceramic substrate are called

a. Monolithic b. Hybrid c. Thick film d. Thin film

48. Two coils (inductors) connected in series have a combined inductance of 15mH. When terminals of one of the coils are reversed and connected to the other, the combined inductance is measured to be 9mH. What is the value of mutual inductance

a. 1.5mH b.3mH c.6mH d.12mH

49. If a parallel LC circuit is excited at frequency less than its resonant frequency, the nature of its effective impedance is

a. Resistive b. Inductive c. Capacitive d. None of these of these

50. The wave length of 1 Giga hertz frequency signal is

a. 10cm b. 30cm c. 3cm d. 1cm

51. Which of the following microwave tubes can be considered as broad band devices

a. Magnetrons

b. Klystrons

c. Reflex klystrons

d. Traveling wave tubes[TWT]

52. Which family of the following integrated circuits has the highest speed

a. DTL b. ECL c. TTL d.CMOS

53. The most important feature of CMOS family of ICs is

a. High speed

b. Small size

c. Low power consumption

d. Low input impedance

54. What is the resolution of 8 bit A/D converter if its full scale voltage is 10v

a. 0.02v b. 0.01 c. 0.039v d. 0.078v

55. What value of resistance is to be used in LSB of 4 bit weighted ladder D/A converter if MSB has 10 kW resistor

a. 160k b. 80k c. 240k d. 100k

56. The pulse width of a radar transmitter is 0.6m sec. and the pulse repetition rate is 700 Hz. The average power measured is 420 watts. What is the peak power

a. 100KW b. 420KW c. 1MW d. None of these

57. The device used for isolating the transmitter and receiver in a radar system is called

a. Diplexer

b. Duplexer

c. Directional coupler

d. None of these

58. “Baud is

a. Total No. of bits/sec in each character

b. Reciprocal of shortest signal element in a character

c. Duration of a character in data transmission

d. None of these

59. The advantage of Totem pole output stage in TTL ICs is

a. Low output impedance

b. Can sink more current

c. Oscillations avoided

d. None of these

60. The capacitance value of a varactor is controlled by

a. A reverse voltage applied to it

b. A series resistance

c. Varying its supply voltage

d. Current through the device

61. Electron volt is equivalent to

a. 3.8 * 10-20 erg

b. 1.602 * 10-12 erg

c. 1.602 * 10-18 erg

d. 1.602 * 10-16 erg

62. The kinetic energy of photo electrons emitted by a photo sensitive surface depends on

a. Intensity of the incident radiation

b. Wavelength of the incident radiation

c. Angle of incident of radiation

d. Surface conditions of the surface

63. Flux is expressed in radio-metric system in

a. Lumens

b. Photons

c. Watts

d. Candles

64. In a three-phase bridge rectifier circuit, the ripple frequency is

a. Same as line frequency

b. Twice the line frequency

c. Thrice the line frequency

d. Six times the line frequency

65. Energy stored in a capacitor as a function of voltage is given by

a. CV2

b. 1V2/2C

c. ½ CV2

d. 1V/2C

66. The operational amplifier used in analog computers have usually open loop flat gain approximately upto

a. 1MHz b. 100MHz c. 10MHz d. 0.1MHz

67. An oscillator of 350 MHz is fed with a pulse of rise time 2 n sec. The rise time of the displayed waveform is approximately

a. 1 n sec b. 2.2 n sec c. 2.0 n sec d. 1.7 n sec

68. A radar transmits a peak power of 100 KW with pulse width of 1 m sec and a pulse repetition rate of 100 KHz. The average output power of the radar is

a. 100KW b.10KW c. 1000KW d. 50KW

69. The incremental inductance in a coil is due to

a. Saturation

b. Superimposed DC

c. Mutual inductance

d. Change of frequency

70. Microwave tube based on velocity modulation principle is

a. Klystron

b. Magnetron

c. Light house tube

d. Traveling wave tube

71. Noise output from the receiver decreases uniformly with noise side band frequency for

a. Frequency modulation

b. Amplitude modulation

c. Pulse amplitude modulation

d. None of these

72. In amplitude modulation the maximum permissible modulation index is

a. Unity b. 100 c. infinity d. None of these

73. In frequency modulation the maximum permissible modulation index is

a. Unity b. 50 c.1000 d. no limit

74. In FM transmission and reception, the pre-emphasis and de-emphasis are used to improve the

a. Signal to noise ratio

b. Frequency response of the receiver

c. Frequency response of the transmitter

d. The sensitivity of the transmitter

75. De-emphasis network uses the combination of

a. R-L b. R-C c. R-L-C d. Transformer

76. The usage of micro sec for defining emphasis is a standard practice but this micro sec definition means

a. 3 dB point of the network means

b. mid point of the network response

c. roll off the network response

d. the stop band ripple of the network response

77. Delayed AGC is applied

a. For all singal strength

b. For singal strength exceeding a specified limit

c. For low singal strength

d. For FM receiver

78. Selectivity means

a. Bandwidth

b. Gain

c. Modulation index

d. None of these

79. Narrow bandwidth broadcast reduces

a. The quality and noise

b. Quality alone

c. Noise alone

d. Quality and intelligibility

80. Squelch means keeping the receiver

a. ON in the absence of carrier

b. OFF in the absence of carrier

c. To remove AGC

d. Increase the AGC

81. Let Z be the series impedance and Y be the shunt admittance of the transmission line, then the characteristic impedance

a. Ã-ZY b.Ã-Y/Z c. Ã-Z/Y d.All the above

82. Noise figure of an amplifier is defined as

a. Input SNR output SNR

b. Input SNR / output SNR

c. Output SNR / input SNR

d. Input SNR / gain

83. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 KW power when modulation is 60%. Its carrier power will be

a. 8.47KW b.8.92KW c. 8.31KW d.10.00KW

84. In AM transmission antenna current is 8 Ampere at zero modulation indexes but increased to 8.93 Ampere when modulated on single sine wave. Then the % of modulation is approximately

a. 70.1% b. 80.1% c. 65.1% d. 10.0%

85. In AM transmission antenna current is 8 Ampere at zero modulation index. At 80% modulation index the antenna current will be

a. 10.00A b. 8.72A c. 9.19A d. 9.79A

86. If two sine waves are amplitude modulated with modulation index m1 and m2, the effective modulation index is

a. Ã- m12/m22

b. Ã- m1 m2

c. Ã- m12+m22

d. Ã- m22/m12

87. If it is transmitted current and Ic is transmitter current at zero modulation index and the transmitted current at modulation index of m will

a. It = Ic Ã-[1+m]

b. It = Ic Ã-[1+m2]

c. It = Ic Ã-[1+m/22]

d. It = IcÃ-1+m2

88. If Rr is the radiation resistance and Rd is the lumped resistance, then the antenna efficiency is given as “

a. (Rr – Rd) / (Rr + Rd)

b. (Rr + Rd) / (Rr ” Rd)

c. Rr / (Rr + Rd)

d. Rd / (Rr + Rd)

89. In end fire array, the current

a. Magnitude and phase in each element is the same

b. Magnitude is the same but phase is different in each element

c. Magnitude is different but no phase difference in each element

d. Magnitude and phase are different in each element

90. In a board side array, the current

a. Magnitude and phase in each element is the same

b. Magnitude is the same but phase is different

c. Magnitude is different but no phase difference in each element

d. Magnitude and phase are different in each element

91. Beam width of the 2 metre paraboloid reflector at 6 GHz is

a. 4.5o

b. 9.25o

c. 3.5o

d. 7.75o

92. The cut of wave length for TE m, n mode is in a wave guide of dimension a*b is

a. 2/Ã-(m/a)2 +(n/b)2

b. 2Ã- [m/a]2 + [n/b]2

c. Ã-(m/a)2 + (n/b)2 /2

d. Ã- [m/a]2 + [n/b]2

93. For the standard rectangular waveguide dimension of 4*2 cm the off wavelength for TM11 mode is approximately

a. 1.788cm b. 3.576cm c. 1.682cm d. 2.546cm

94. In IMPATT diode, the voltage and current are

a. In phase

b. Out off phase by 90o

c. Out off phase by 180o

d. None of these of the above

95. Which of the following statement is true

a. Tunnel diode & IMPATT diode are negative resistance devices

b. Tunnel diode is positive resistance device and the IMPATT diode is negative resistance device

c. Tunnel diode is negative resistance device and the IMPATT diode is positive resistance device

d. None of these of the above

96. In a SSB modulation system with 100% modulation index the power saving will be

a. 5/6 of carrier power

b. 2/8 of carrier power

c. 5/12 of the carrier power

d. ½ of the carrier power

97. In SSB modulation the modulation index is increased from 0.5 to 1.0, then the power will be increased by

a. 2 times b. 4 times c. 16 times d. 32 times

98. 900 rpm is equal to

a. 94.2 rad/sec

b. 47.1 rad/sec

c. 188.4 rad/sec

d. 16.72 rad/sec

99. Darlington pair is used to

a. Increase the voltage gain

b. Increase the current gain

c. Decrease voltage gain

d. Decrease current gain

100. The transfer function of the system shown is

a. G(s) / {1 + H(s)}

b. G(s) H(s) / {1 + G(s) H(s)}

c. G(s) / {1 + G(s) H(s)} d. G(s) / G(s) H(s)

Electronics-I Answers

1. c

2. a

3. a

4. c

5. a

6. b

7. b

8. b

9. b

10. d

11. c

12. b

13. b

14. d

15. c

16. a

17. c

18. d

19. c

20. b

21. d

22. d

23. c

24. b

25. b

26. d

27. c

28. b

29. d

30. c

31. d

32. a

33. b

34. c

35. c

36. d

37. c

38. c

39. a

40. a

41. a

42. a

43. b

44. b

45. d

46. c

47. d

48. a

49. b

50. b

51. d

52. b

53. c

54. c

55. b

56. c

57. b

58. b

59. a

60. a

61. b

62. b

63. a

64. b

65. c

66. d

67. c

68. b

69. d

70. a

71. a

72. a

73. b

74. a

75. b

76. a

77. b

78. a

79. a

80. b

81. c

82. b

83. a

84. a

85. c

86. c

87. c

88. c

89. b

90. a

91. c

92. a

93. b

94. c

95. a

96. a

97. b

98. b

99. b

100. c

BSNL PAPER 2011

Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. formed in October, 2000, is World’s 7th largest Telecommunications Company providing comprehensive range of telecom services in India: Wireline, CDMA mobile, GSM Mobile, Internet, Broadband, Carrier service, MPLS-VPN, VSAT, VoIP services, IN Services etc. Presently it is one of the largest & leading public sector unit in India. … Read more
1. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
(A) paper (B) rubber (C) ceramic (D) Mylar
2. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
(A) infrared region (B) ultraviolet region (C) visible region (D) x-ray region
3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
(A) high and high (B) low and high (C) high and low (D) low and low.
4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used suppress
(A) odd harmonics (B) even harmonics (C) fundamental component (D) dc component
5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(A) mutual inductance between two coils only (B) self inductances of the two coils only (C) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (D) none
6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
(A) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
(B) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
(C) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
(D) The poynting vector points everywhere radially in to the volume between the plates.
7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
(A) Polarization (B) Conductivity (C) Structural homogeneties (D) Ionization
8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silion
(A) Boron (B) Indium (C) Germanium (D) Antimony
9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
(A) high thermal conductivity and high melting point (B) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point (C) High thermal conductivity and low melting point (D) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.
10. An SCR can only be turned off via it’s
(A) cathode (B) anode (C) gates (D) none
11. Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to
(A) increase the recombination rate (B) reduce the recombination rate
(C) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D) make silicon semi-metal
12 With n nodes and b branches a network will have
(A) (b+n) links (B) b – n +1 links (C) b -n-1 links (D) b + n + 1 links
13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 45
14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
(A) always positive (B) always negative
(C) sometime positive, sometime negative (D) numerically less then its kinetic energy.
15. A delition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no
(A) channel (B) gate (C) P-N junctions (D) substrate
16. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge cover the wire round strain guage is that
(A) it is more sensitive (B) it is more linear (C) it is less temperature dependent (D) it’s cost is low
17. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by
(A) thermally generated electrons and holes (B) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
(C) migration of minority carriers across the junction (D) flow of drift current.
18. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter
(A) recombine with holes in the base (B) recombine in the emitter itself
(C) pass through the base to the collector (D) are stopped by the junction barrier
19. The deplition voltage for silicon diode at m0 bias is
(A) 0.5 volt (B) 0.3 volt (C) 0.7 volt (D) 1.1 volt
20. A UJT can
(A) be triggered by any one of it’s three terminals (B) not be triggered
(C) be triggered by two of its three terminal only (D) be triggered by all of its terminals only.
21. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and inform charge density in vacuum is
22. Maxwells divergence equation for the magnetic field is given by
__ __ __ __
A. ?* B = 0 B. ? . B = 0
__ __ __ __
C. ?* B = p D. ? . B = p
23. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 1 at frequency f and if it’s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then its radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be
(A) R/2 O (B) R O (C) 2R O (D) 4R O
24. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
(A) TE111 and TM111 (B) TE011 and TM011 (C) TE022 and TM111 (D) TE111 and TM011
25. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then its efficiency will be nearly
(A) 0.19 (B) 0.81 (C) 0.97 (D) 1.19
26.The transformer utilization factor of full wave bridge rectifier is
(A) 0.812 (B) 0.286 (C) 0.693 (D) 0.782
27. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in its characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHZ signal then if d is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
(A) d = 1.5 cm (B) d is less then 1.5 cm (C) d is greater then 1.5 cm (D) d = 3cm
28. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give
(A) an output power which is one – quarter of the input power (B) an output power which is one-half of the input power
(C) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage. (D) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power.
29. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer
(A) the terminals are kept shorted (B) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
(C) the terminals are kept open circuited (D) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals.
30. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms.
Which of the following values represent full series arm R1 and shunt arm R2?
1.R1 = 147 O 2. R1 = 153 O 3. R1 = 1.5 O 4. R1= 3750 O
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
31. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294 µH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is
(A) 49 O (B) 60 O (C) 70 O (D) 140 O
32. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
33. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 =Z22 2. h12 = h21 3.Y12 = -Y21 4.BC – AD = -1 then the network is reciprocal if and only if
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) 4 alone is correct.
34. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are
(A) will become half (B) will remain unchanged
(C) will become double (D) cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known.
35. A iron cored choke is a
(A) Linear and active device (B) Non linear and passive device (C) Active device only (D) Linear device only
36. Poynting vector wattmeter is based on
(A) Seebeck effect (B) Ferranti effect (C) Induction effect (D) Hall effect
37. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense?
(A) Thermocouple (B) Piezoelectric pick-up (C) Photo voltaic cell (D) LCD.
38. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, de to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is
(A) Converter system (B) Inverter (C) Chopper (D) Thyristor
39. When a dipole antenna of 1/8 length has an equivalent total resistance of 1.5 Watt then the efficiency of the antenna is
(A) 0.89159% (B) 8.9159% (C) 89.159% (D) 891.59%
40. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
(A) 5 KHz (B) 15 KHz (C) 75 KHz (D) 200 KHz
41. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is
(A)sinusoidal (B) square (C) rectangular (D) triangular
42. Strain gauge is
(A) not a transducer (B) an active transducer (C) not an electronic instrument
43. A high Q coil has
(A) large band width (B) high losses (C) low losses (D) flat response
44. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3 V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is
(A) 1.810% (B) 0.181% (C)12.45% (D) 0.0018%
45. The ‘h’ parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for
(A) High frequency, large signal operation (B) High frequency, small signal operation (C) Low frequency, large signal operation.
46. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on
(A) Values of input in the past and in the future (B) Values of input at that time and in the past
(C) Values of input at that time and in the future (D) none
47. Form the hot metal surface electrons escape because
(A) of change of state from metal to gas due to heat. (B) of change of state from gas to metal
(C) the energy supplied is greater than the work function (D) the energy is greater than Fermi level
48. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is
(A) amplifier (B) triode (C) diode (D) transistor
49. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
(A) cathode (B) anode (C) The central tap on the high voltage secondary (D) plate.
50. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will
(A) Amplify the noise as much as the signal (B) Reduce the noise (C) Increase the noise (D) Not effect the noise
PART – II
51. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode
(A) SCR (B) PCR (C) VCR (D) DCR
52. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a
(A) constant voltage source (B)constant current source
(C) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source. (D) resistance
53. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of
(A) electrons only (B) electrons or holes (C) electrons and holes (D) holes only
54. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ration from primary to secondary are respectively
(A) ferrite : 20 : 1 (B) laminated iron : 1 :1 (C) ferrite : 1 : 1 (D) powered iron : 1: 1
55. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse mode is a
(A) 1 phase full converter (B) 3 phase half wave converter (C) 3 phase semi converter (D) 3 phase full converter.
56. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is
(A) square wave (B) triangular wave (C) step function (D) pulsed wave
57. a single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is
(A) 100V (B)141.4V (C)200V (D)282.8V
58. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying
(A) T keeping Ton constant (B) Ton keeping T constant
(C) Toff keeping T constant (D) None of the above
59.An ideal power supply consist of
(A) Very small output resistance (B) Zero Internal resistance
(C) Very large input resistance (D) Very large output resistance
60. The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by
(A) ? (B) gamma (C) ? (D) e
61. In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as
(A) 1111101 (B) 0001 0010 0101 (C) 7D (D) None of the bove
62. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper nomenclatures
(A) Current series feedback (B) Current shunt feedback
(C) Voltage series feedback (D) Voltage shunt feedback
63. Class A amplifier is used when
(A) No phase inversion is required (B) Highest voltage gain is required
(C) dc voltages are to be amplified (D) Minimum distortion is desired.
64. Identity the correct match for the given transister
(A) Enhancement type P channel MOSFET (B) Depletion type N channel MOSFET
(C) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET (D) Depletion type P channel MOSFET
65. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled at a rate less than 2 fermimeter, the constructed signal will be
(A) Distortionless (B) Small in amplitude (C) Having higher frequencies suppressed (D) Distorted
66.IC which has quad 2 input AND gates
(A) 7411 (B) 7404 (C)7400 (D) 7408
67. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as
(A) left shift register (B) right shift register (C) shift registers (D) none of the above
68. The expression ABC can be simplified to
__ __ __
A. A B C B. AB+BC+CA
__ __ __ __
C. AB+ C C. A + B + C
69. Read the following
(i) Routh Herwitz’s criterion is in time domain
(ii) Root locus plot is in time domain
(iii) Bode plot is in frequency domain
(iv) Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain.
(A) 2,3 and 4 are correct (B) 1,2 and 3 are correct (C) 3 and 4 are correct (D) all four are correct
70. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both
(A) count pulses (B) store binary operation (C) shift operation
(C) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip.
71. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50mv and the total maximum input is 10v. The number of bits required is
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 200
72. On different unit impulse function results in
(A) Unit parabolic function (B) Unit triplet (C) Unit doublet (D) Unit ramp function
73. … watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite
(A) 100 (B) 500 (C) 2000 (D) 1000
74. The ripple factor in an LC filter.
(A) Increases with the load current (B) Increases with the load resistance
(C) Remains constant with the load current (D) Has the lowest value
75. In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their
(A) Language digits (B) Access digits (C) Area codes (D) Central office codes
76. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because
(A) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems
(B) compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power
(C) its use avoids receiver complexity
(D) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity.
77. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function.
1+6S
G0(S) = ______
1+2S
(A) 15o (B) 45o (C) 30o (D) 60o
78. The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is
(A) Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce gain
(B) Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action
(C) Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback
(D) Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action,
79. Identity slope change at w = 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function.
A -80 dB/dec to -60 dB/dec B 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec
C 20 dB/dec to -40 dB/dec D 40 dB/dec to -20 dB/dec
80. In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by
K
G(s)H(s)= _____________
S(s+2)(s2+2s+2) Number of asymptotes of its root loci is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
81. In a closed – loop transfer function
G(s) 2600 k(s+25)
____ = _____________________________
H(s) s4+125s3+5100s2+65000s+65000 k
A. ±j228 B. ±j2.28 C. ±j1.14 D. j114
82. Considering the following statement : In a magic tee
1. the collinear arms are isolated from each other
2. one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm
3. one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm
4. E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. Of these statements
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1 and 3 are correct (C) 1 and 4 are correct (D) 2 and 3 are correct.
83. In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called
(A) ANIK (B) EARLY BIRD (Intel sat – 1) (C) WESTAR (D)MOLNIYA
84. When A = 0., B = 0, C = 1 then in two input logic gate we get gate
(A) XOR gate (B) AND gate (C) NAND gate (D) NOR gate
85. In a radio receiver the IF amplifier
(A) is tuned above the stations incoming frequency (B) amplifies the output of local oscillator
(C) is fixed tuned to one particular frequency (D) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies
86. A duplexer is used to
(A) Couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference
(B) isolate the antenna from the local oscillator
(C) prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver
(D) use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference.
87. Boolean algebra is based on
(A) numbers (B) logic (C) truth (D) symbols
88. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be
(A) linear amplifier (B) harmonic generators (C) class C power amplifiers (D) class untuned amplifiers
89. In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on
(A) maximum power of the transmitter (B) pulse repetition frequency
(C) width of the transmitted pulse (D) sensitivity of the radar receiver.
90. In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to
(A) equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace
(B) help vertical synchronization (D) simplify the generation of the vertical sync pulse
91. The frequency range 30MHz – 300MHz is
(A) medium frequency (B) very high frequency (C) super high frequency (D) Infrared frequency
92. Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide
(A) TE (B) TM (C) TEM (D) HE
93.Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at
(A) upto 18 kms from earth (B) from 18 to 70 km (C) 70 to 500 km (D) above 500km
94. A two cavity klystron tube is a
(A) velocity modulated tube (B) frequency modulated tube
(C) Amplitude modulated tube (D) simple triode
95. As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get.
(A) doubled (B) quadruped (C) unchanged (D) halved.
96.Which one is a cross field tube
(A) Klystron (B) Reflex Klystron (C) Magnetron (D) TWT
97. The degree of coupling depends
(A) size of hole (B) location of holes (C) size and location of holes (D) not depend on size or location of hole
98. The thermal noise depends on
(A) direct current through device
(B) resistive component of resistance
(C) reactive component of impedance
(D) load to connected.
99. The charge on a hole is
(A) 1.6 x 10-9 (B) 1.6 x 10-19 (C) 1.6 x 101 (D) 1.6 x 1020
100. Intel’s 8085 microprocessor chip contains
(A) seven 8 bit registers (B) 8 seven bits registers (C) seven 7 bit registers (D) eight 8 bit registers.
PART III
101. The words ‘Satyameva Jayathe’ have been taken from
(A) Vedas (B) Bhagavad Gita (C) Mundaka Upanishada (D) Mahabharatha (E) None of these
102. Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb?
(A) USA (B) USSR (C) China (D) Pakistan
103. “Kathakali” dance is connected with
(A) Kerala (B) Rajastan (C) Uttar pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
104. The term “Ashes” is associated with
(A) Hockey (B) Cricket (C) Soccer (D) None of these.
105. The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of
(A) Gupta architecture (B) Rashtrakutlas architecture (C) Chalukya architecture (D) Chola architecture
106. When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by
(A) Joint sitting of the two Houses
(B) President of India
(C) Prime Minister of India
(D) BY a special committee for the purpose
107. Which of the following is not work of kalidasa?
(A) Meghdood (B) Reghuvansha (C) Sariputra Prakarma (D) Ritushamhara
108. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of
(A) Akbar the Grest (B) Mahmud Ghaznvi (C) Snah Jahan (D) Alauddin Khilji
109. With the beginings of space travel, we entered a new
(A) Era of great history (B) List (C) Book (D) Year
110. An though it mourns the death of someone, need not be sad.
(A) Funny poem (B) Newspaper article (C) Othodox talk (D) Elegy
111. If stare is glance so gulp is
(A) Sip (B) Tell (C) Salk (D) Admire
112. He hardly works means
(A) The work is hard (B) He is hard (C) The work is easy (D) He work very little.
113. Give the opposite word for pulchritude
(A) antipathy (B) unsightliness (C) inexperience (D) languor
114. Nanometre is ……. part of metre
(A) MIllionth (B) Ten Millionth (C) Billionth (D) Ten billionth
115. Malaria affects
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Intestine (D) Lungs
116. Sindhu Rakshak is a /an
A) Aircraft carrier (B) Submarine (C) Multiple purpose fighter (D) Anti-aircraft gun
117. With which subject is “Dada Saheb Phalke Award” associated.
(A) Best film director
(B) Best musician
(C) Best documentary
(D) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film industry
118. Who developed the branch of mathematics known as Calculus?
(A) Arybhatta (B) Newton (C) Einstein (D) Archimedes
119. In which state in Kanha Part situated?
(A) M.P (B) U.P (C) Assam (D) W.Bengal
120. Which day is observed as Human Rights Day?
(A) 24th October (B) 4th July (C) 8th Auguest (D) 10th December
ANSWERS
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C)
20. (C) 21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (A)
29. (B) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (B) 36. (C) 37. (D)
38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (B)
47. (C) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (B) 51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (C) 55. (C)
56. (B) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (D) 61. (A) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (B)
65. (D) 66. (D) 67. (C) 68. (D) 69. (D) 70. (D) 71. (B) 72. (C) 73. (D)
74 (D) 75. (C) 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (A) 80. (D) 81. (A) 82. (C)
83. (C) 84. (C) 85. (C) 86. (C) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (C) 91. (B)
92. (C) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (C) 97. (B) 98. (B) 99. (B) 100. (A)
101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (A) 104. (B) 105. (D) 106. (C) 107. (D) 108. (A)
109. (A) 110. (D) 111. (A) 112. (D) 113. (B) 114. (B) 115. (B) 116. (D)
117. (C) 118. (C) 119. (B) 120. (A).

Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) Fresher Interview By Om Prakash

Dr. Bhabha approached Sir Dorabji Tata Trust for starting nuclear research in India leading to the establishment of Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), Mumbai, which was inaugurated on December 19, 1945. Atomic Energy Act was passed on April 15,1948 and Atomic Energy Commission was constituted on August 10, 1948 in order to intensify the studies related to the exploitation of nuclear energy for the benefit of the nation…. Read more

Job Interview: I Qualified the Written Exam Conducted by BARC and Attended the Interview.First let me tell you that this is the most genuine and toughest interview among all the PSUs. This is the best interview methodology that they adopt.They just ask for very basic questions of Intermediate (12th) level and want to check the basic understanding. Almost all the questions are practical questions no direct relation with the knowledge of core technical. In this way they look for the way you approach to solve a problem. Because the post they offer you is scientific officers’ post. This is a research oriented job that requires the great skills and knowledge to solve a real practical problem. So, this was a basic idea about the interview. Now let’s talk about the methodology, actually they ask you 4-5 subjects in which you are more comfortable and ask the basic questions. But keep in mind that you are really comfortable with those subjects and you should be thoroughly prepared. Because they will try to divert you from your answer and will drill on topic till you surrender. But anyway you don’t worry even if you are not able to solve a problem for whole but the way you approach and the basic concepts should be correct. They are generally the minimum time for interview is more than 45 minutes. Even the person they know will not be qualified; they drill him at least for 45 minutes. As the interview timing cross more than 45-60 minutes, your chance goes on increasing to get selected. Finally If they are satisfied with your performance then they give you a medical slip that insures your eligibility fir the interview. Final Result depends on the no. of posts and the merit list prepared on the basis of marks you achieved in written and interview. I wish you all the best for your interview.

It is well known that hard work and the luck both are that major factor that plays important roles in every exam. Your Luck also plays an important role that by which panel you are going to be interviewed. During my interview I was a victim of bad luck so I could not qualified the interview.
I had heard that the panel members being very helpful they bring you out of the pressure if you feel during the interview but this was not true in my case.

Anyways, I entered in the room, there were 5 members. The committee chairman asked me about my hometown. The whole conversation was in Hindi, so the people who are from Hindi background they don’t need to be afraid of this problem in PSU interviews.

Interview Questions

Then he asked me “Is it your first interview or you have gone through any other interview?”,Me : “Sir this is my first interview”. This normal conversation is just to make you feel good and to make you comfortable.Chairman: So you have done your B.Tech From IIIT?Me: Yes Sir.Suddenly another person interrupted as he was looking at my cv, he told to the chairman that I got first Prize in solid
modeling Contest. This was a curse for me for that interview.Chairman: So you got first prize in Modeling?Me: Yes sir.Chairman: What is Computer Aided Design?Me: I told.Chairman: You have been taught the Finite Element Methods course?Me: Yes sir.Chairman: Can you do the analysis of a cylindrical pressure vessel?Me: No sir, actually we just learnt the analysis of one dimensional objects.Chairman: But you know the basics of analysis steps?Me: Yes sir.Chairman: What will be the first step?Me: We will take the symmetry and will not require going through the analysis of whole section.Chairman: Draw the element of symmetry?Me: I drawn.Chairman: Next step?Me: Boundary conditions and Forces.Chairman: What will be the boundary conditions, forces etc…..? I could not give the answers, and the trials were wrong and I was totally confused. but he rammed me a lot and wasted almost 10 minutes.It was
a bad impression that lead me through the darkness.Then he asked me to put the name of subjects I studied in B.Tech as our curriculum is different from other colleges curriculum, It has
major emphasize on Design. So under pressure I was not able to recall the subjects. I started to recall them and listed on the paper but didn’t minded to put them in the order

I prepared. Actually I prepared Material science, Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer and Micro Metal Forming (for the fabrication of MEMS devices, a recent topic).
So they just started asking the questions randomly from the subjects they got in that list. After a sometime chairman asked me about the subjects I am
comfortable. I told and given the preference to Micro-Metal Forming that was a new topic for him and he decided to get out of the topic and asked about the
issues when we go through the micro forming. I told that as we go from macro size to micro, the strength, isotropic behavior and surface roughness changes
and affect a lot. Then he asked how surface roughness comes into picture?

Me: As material thickness approaches towards micro size, the no. of grain boundaries becomes fewer and grain boundaries sizes are
in the order of microns so the very early surface has a lot of deviations that comes in picture. He : What is inside the space between two grain boundaries; Gas or Vacuum?Me: Sir Vacuum. He Said: You are wrong, go and refer the books. and in this way he came out of the topic that he was trying for. So,
I will suggest you not to give any new topic as the persons taking interview may or may not be comfortable with that and it may be a curse to you.In Thermo….. he
askedHe: there is a cylinder-piston system that contains a gas, a weight W is kept on piston what will be the pressure?Me: Sir W/(g*A)—A: area, g: gravity (It was wrong actually I was in such a pressure that to calculate the pressure I was using the
formula M/A)Then another person asked me about “g”, why I am using it ? I confidently said: sir to get the mass from weight

He knew that I am confused so he asked me to derive it’s dimension I derived then he asked me to derive the dimension of force by area and he asked me to
compare, and I found my mistake. I said sorry and then

He: I am giving it “Q” all the boundaries are insulated so that no heat goes outside, calculate it’s final volume?Me: I was confused and was asking about a lot of irrelevant information needed to solve.He: This is all I told you now calculate the volume…no other information. I could not derive it.Then……Fluid:He: I am having an wedge shaped vessel (triangular shaped) I want to know the water level at different places, what will be the
levels of water at different tubes?Me: Same level in every tube.He: why?Me: because of fluids property…pressure at a level is same at every point So the height raised will compensate for it.He: ok so, pressure is constant at all the points in same level but different at different levels?Me: Yes sir.He: So if I make two holes at different levels and fit a tube at outside from the vessel then water will flow?Me: Yes sir.He: If I place a turbine in between the pipe then will the electricity produced?Me: No.He: Why?Me: because water will flow once only.He: But pressure difference is continuously acting at two different levels?Me: As once water flows and the section gets filled pressure at the same level in vessel and pipe will be same, So no way it will
flow again.This was a section where I was somewhat comfortable and answered correctly.SOM: Shear stresses, how shear stress comes ….Is bending stress and shear stress same and a lot….they make me totally confused.

Mohr’s Circle related questions. That I replied correctly. As you know that I am from Department of Mechanical Engineering. I qualified the written exam
conducted by BARC and attended the interview.

First let me tell you that this is the most genuine and toughest interview among all the PSUs. This is the best interview methodology that they adopt.

They just ask for very basic questions of Intermediate (12th) level and want to check the basic understanding. Almost all the questions are practical questions
no direct relation with the knowledge of core technical. In this way they look
for the way you approach to solve a problem.

Because the post they offer you is scientific officers’ post. This is a research oriented job that requires the great skills and knowledge to solve a real
practical problem. So, this was a basic idea about the interview. Now let’s talk about the methodology, actually they ask you 4-5 subjects in which

you are more comfortable and ask the basic questions. But keep in mind that you are really comfortable with those subjects and you should be thoroughly
prepared. Because they will try to divert you from your answer and will drill on topic till you surrender. But anyway you don’t worry

even if you are not able to solve a problem for whole but the way you approach and the basic concepts should be correct. They are generally the minimum time

for interview is more than 45 minutes. Even the person they know will not be qualified; they drill him at least for 45 minutes. As the interview timing cross
more than 45-60 minutes, your chance goes on increasing to get selected. Finally If they are satisfied with your performance then they give you a medical slip
that insures your eligibility fir the interview. Final Result depends on the no. of posts and the merit list prepared on the basis of marks you achieved in
written and interview. I wish you all the best for your interview. It is well known that hard work and the luck both are that major factor that plays
important roles in every exam. Your Luck also plays an important role that by which panel you are going to be interviewed. During my interview I was a victim
of bad luck so I could not qualified the interview.

I had heard that the panel members being very helpful they bring you out of the pressure if you feel during the interview but this was not true in my case.

This was a section where I was somewhat comfortable and answered correctly.SOM: Shear stresses, how shear stress comes ….Is bending stress and shear stress same and a lot….they make me totally confused.

Mohr’s Circle related questions. That I replied correctly. As you know that I am from Department of Mechanical Engineering. I qualified the written exam
conducted by BARC and attended the interview.

Contributor Name : Om Prakash

Inautix Placement Papers

Hi friends.INAUTIX came for campus selection in our college on 1st April and I am very happy tat i have been placed and became a member of  INAUTIX family.

The whole process consists of three rounds.first one is the written test which contains
1.QUANTITATIVE.
2.LOGICAL&ANALYTICAL REASONING.
3.VERBAL.
4.C QUESTIONS.
5.BASIC COMPUTER QUESTIONS.

Duration for the test period is 50 minutes and no.of questions is 50. The paper was little bit easy but time seemed to be not sufficient.regular practice can make u to finish it with the given time.so work out as many problems and u will feel it very easy.

Refer the following books.
1.REASONING BOOK by R.S.AGARWAL.
2.QUANTITATIVE BOOK by R.S.AGARWAL.
3.LET US C by YASHWANT KANITKAR.
4.TEST UR C SKILLS by YASHWANT KANITKAR.

No.of.students appeared for written test:500&above
No.of.students cleared written test:129

Next round is group discussion.More no of students were eliminated in this round.only thing u have to do is be cool and confident. They will allot 10 students per batch.For me GD starts at 11:00pm The topic given to our batch is ,INTERNET IS A BOON OR BAN FOR COLLEGE STUDENTS,.

The main things  to be followed in group discussion:
1.IF POSSIBLE TRY TO BE AN INITIATOR.
2.BE COOL&CONFIDENT.
3.MAKE SURE WITH THE VOICE MODULATION.
4.ALLOW OTHERS TO SPEAK,THATS MORE IMPORTANT.
5.KEEP EYE CONTACT WITH EVERYONE.
If u follow all these then u can feel comfort during group discussion.

After GD,58 students were selected for the technical+hr interview.

The next round is the technical+hr interview. In this round u have to be confident in ur area of interest,C programming and if u r an electrical student be confident with ur electrical and electronics basics.

As i am a EEE student my interviewer asked me some questions from my electronics basics and some C programs.
dont get tensed,be confident with ur answers and be honest. if u dont know any answer just tell him that u dont know.

Regarding C programming just go through some simple programs like
FIBANOCCI SERIES
FACTORIAL
REVERSE THE DIGITS or STRING
GENERATION OF PRIME NO
MATRIX MULTIPLICATION,……etc

I attended the interview for more than 45 minutes.then we were asked to sit outside and we waited for the results. After half an hour another executive member called me and said u got selected.

Totally 28 students got selected from our college and i am very happy that i am one of the 28.

really i was very happy and thank god for giving me this opportunity. so friends have faith in god,work hard and success will be urs…………………………………

Stay as cool as you could and that will fetch you the job…

Placement Questions : 

cin is an
a.function                                                                                                          
b.object
c.class.

I  con,t remember the ques but the ans is Virtual base class

what is the use of scope resolution operator?

Advantage of inline function?

copy constructor is
      ans:call by value.

ques on vertual destructor?

template one ques?

one q, on container class?

C paper

 How will u terminate the statement?
      ans: ;

select the wrong one
        a.  a+=1;
        b.  a*=2;
        c.  a**=1;(ans)
        d.  a>>=1;

 main()
         {
           int n,i=1;
          switch(n)
              {
                case 1:
                      some stuff;
               case 2:
                         some stuff;
              default:
                        i=10;
              }
                printf(“i=%d”,i);
              }
         what will be value of i;
         ans:non of the above

pick ut the wrong one
       #typedef some stuff
            {
               —
             };

one q,s on do loop?

pick the odd one
          a.     malloc
          b.     calloc
          c.     new(ans)

char *ptr;
       p=malloc(20);
         How will u de allocate the memory?
        a.  delete.
         b.  free.
      There r about 20 q,s in this section rest i am un able to remember?

UNIX paper:

 How will u do version maintaince?
sccs(source code control system)

awk $2

A program in shell script?                                                                              
        find the o/p.

Which signal u can,t catch?
      ans:sigkill

Core dump is due to ?
     ans:segmentation fault.

Echo “todays date is ,date,”;
       o/p = ?

process synchronisation is done by ?
          ans:s,phore
  
Technical Questions

main()
  {
  char **p==”Hello”;
  printf(“%s”,**p);                                                                                        
   }
Ans: Garbage or nothing

main()
     {
        printf(“%d%cn”);
        printf(“%d%cn”);
     }
    Ans: Garbage Value

main()
     {
        int x==5;
        printf(“%d%d”,x++,++x);
     }
      Ans==6 6

 main()
        {
          int x==4;
          printf(“%d”,printf(” %d %d “,x,x) );
        }
          Ans: 4 4 5

main()
     {
       union                                                                                                    
        {
      int i;
      char p;
      struct
          {
                      int t;
                      char e;
                      char o;
                     }w;
                    };
                printf(“%dn”,sizeof(l) );
          }
        Ans: 4

main()
             {
               int i==0,n==6;
               while(n–0);
               i+==n;
               printf(“%dn”,i);                                                                                    
               }
          Ans: -1

ain()
               {
                 char a[]==”Hello”;
                 printf(“%cn”,*a++);
               }
             Ans: Error

a=3,b=2,c=1;
           What,s the value of k?
            k== a< b < c-1;
            Ans: 0

main()
               {
              int a=3;
                do
                   {
                      printf(“%d”, a);
                      a=-1;
                     } while(a0);                                                                                  
                   }
               Ans: 3

It is not “exact” Question; But the given Answers is:
       a) PASS1 PASS2
       b) PASS1 FAIL1
       c)FAIL1 FAIL2
      d)FAIL1 PASS2
         main()
               {
                char c==-32;
                int i==-64;
                unsigned u==-26;
                 if(ci)
                 printf(“PASS1”);
                 if( i < c)
                   printf(“PASS2”);
                  else
                    printf(“FAIL1”);
                  if(i                    printf(“PASS2”);                                                                      
                   else
                      printf(“FAIL2”);
                 }
                 Ans: PASS1 PASS2 PASS1

main()
    {
       int i==0;
       for( i==0; i<= ;i++)
        {
         switch(i)
           {
             case 0: i+==5;
             case 1: i+==2;
             case 2: i+==5;
             default: i+==4;
             break;
             }
         printf(“%d”,i);                                                                
       }
    Ans: 16 21

 main()
  {
     int i==4;
     switch(i)
      {
        case 1:
        printf(“HEllo”):
        case default: // “case” should not come with “default”
        printf(“****”);
      }
   }
  Ans: Error

main()
   {
     int sum==0,count;
     for(count==1;sum+==count)
     printf(“%dt”,sum);
   }
 Ans: Error

define cond(a) a=e && a<=0                                                            
     main()
       {
         char s==,R,;
         if( cond(s) )
         printf(“UPPER CASE”);
          else
          printf(“LOWER CASE”);
       }
  Ans:UPPER CASE

main()
 {
     static int i==5;
      printf(“%dt”,i–);
      if( i)
      main();
       }
Ans: 5 4 3 2 1

main()
 {
  char *a1==”new”,*a2==”dictionary”,*t;
  swap(a1,a2);
  printf(“(%s%s)”,a1,a2);                                                          
  t=¡;
  a1=¢;
  a2==t;
  printf(“-(%s%s)”,a1,a2);
   }
 swap( char *s1,char *s2)
      {
     char *temp;
     s1=s2;
     s2=s1;
     temp=s1;
     }
  Ans: (newdictionary)-(dictionarynew)

*p++?
 Ans: increments Address

main()
 {
 int a[]=={ 10,20,30,40,50};
 char*p==(char*)a;
  printf(“%d”, * ( (int *) p+4);                                                                    
  }
 Ans: 50

one question nothig but calling a function before it has been defined.